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Question 1
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. The mother is concerned as she has noticed some hair growing in her daughter's armpits, and although she has not shown any distress or had any other noticeable symptoms, the mother is worried that something is wrong as she is too young to begin going through puberty. On examination, the child has axillary hair growth bilaterally, and her breasts are of appropriate size for her age.
Gonadotrophin assays show the following:
FSH 0.2 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 3)
LH 0.1 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 5)
What is the most likely cause of this child's axillary hair growth?Your Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:In cases of gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty (GIPP), both FSH and LH levels are low. This is in contrast to gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty (GDPP), where FSH and LH levels are high and testes are larger than expected for age. GIPP is caused by increased levels of sex hormones, such as testosterone, which suppress LH and FSH. This can be due to ovarian, testicular, or adrenal causes, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In boys with GIPP, testicular volume is typically normal or small. Adrenal hyperplasia is the only cause of GIPP, as all other causes would result in GDPP and increased levels of FSH and LH.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?
Your Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic
Explanation:A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.
Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of asthma. Upon examination, she displays bilateral expiratory wheezing but no signs of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and PEF is approximately 60% of normal. What is the recommended course of action for steroid treatment?
Your Answer: Do not give steroids
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film thrombocytopenia
Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 4-week-old girl who previously had no issues with feeding is now experiencing forceful, non-bilious vomiting after feeds. The following blood and blood gas results have been obtained:
Investigation Result Normal Range
Haemoglobin 170 g/l 130–200 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8 × 103/mm3 6–18 × 103/mm3
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.2 mmol/l 3.5–6 mmol/l
Chloride (Cl-) 80 mmol/l 95–105 mmol/l
Bilirubin 12 mmol/l 3–17 mmol/l
Urea 9 mmol/l 1–5 mmol/l
Creatinine 55 μmol/l 20–65 μmol/l
pH 7.4 7.35–7.45
pO2 31 kPa 11–14 kPa
pCO2 3.2 kPa 4.5–6 kPa
HCO3- 28 mmol/l 18–25 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Common Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that typically affects infants between 2 and 4 weeks of age, with boys being more commonly affected. The main symptom is projectile vomiting of non-bile-stained vomit, leading to a characteristic hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.Intussusception
Intussusception is a condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 children, usually between 6 and 18 months of age. It is often associated with viral gastroenteritis. Unlike pyloric stenosis, vomiting is not a predominant feature, and if it occurs, it may be bile-stained. Intussusception causes small bowel obstruction, leading to engorgement of the intussuscepted bowel, rectal bleeding, and possible bowel gangrene.Biliary Atresia
Biliary atresia is a rare birth defect with a prevalence of 0.5-0.8 per 10,000 births. It causes clinical jaundice with conjugated bilirubinemia. Surgical treatment, such as a Kasai portoenterostomy, is necessary, and outcomes are generally good.Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that affects approximately 1 in 5000 live births. It may be familial and is associated with trisomy 21. It typically presents within the first few days of life with intestinal obstruction. The diagnosis is confirmed through rectal biopsy.Tracheo-Oesophageal Fistula
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula is a condition that is usually associated with oesophageal atresia but can occur on its own. It tends to present with choking or coughing during feeding and recurrent lower respiratory tract infections. Projectile vomiting is not a common feature, and the diagnosis may not be made until later in childhood. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers?
Your Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The arterial oxygen saturation is 70%, and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen is 35 mmHg (normal range is 75-100 mmHg) after receiving 100% oxygen. There are no signs of respiratory distress or pulmonary edema upon examination. What is the probable reason for the infant's discoloration?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
Explanation:Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease in Newborns
Cyanotic congenital heart disease is a condition that results in low oxygen levels in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin. There are several causes of this condition in newborns, including transposition of the great arteries (TGA), tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis, hypoplastic left heart syndrome, severe ventricular septal defect, and tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defect.
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. In this condition, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are switched, which is incompatible with life without an associated mixing defect such as atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent ductus arteriosus.
Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in cyanosis early after birth due to a severely stenotic pulmonary outflow, which maximizes the right-to-left shunt through the ventricular septal defect.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a cyanotic congenital heart disease that is usually associated with pulmonary edema. This condition is caused by dysgenesis of the left ventricle, which leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood and subsequent cyanosis.
Severe ventricular septal defect results in left-to-right shunting of blood, which typically does not result in cyanosis until progressive cardiac decompensation occurs. This makes it an unlikely cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns who present with cyanosis immediately after birth.
Tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defects is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in right-to-left blood shunting without pulmonary edema early after birth, but it is less common than other causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are discussing conception with two parents who both have achondroplasia. They ask you what the chances are that a child of theirs would be of average height. What is the appropriate answer?
Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.
In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.
Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of right groin pain that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. You observe him walking into the consultation room with an antalgic gait. He reports that the pain started after he jumped down from a tree and landed on his right leg.
During the examination, you notice that the boy has been in the 90th percentile for weight for several years. He has a reduced ability to internally rotate his right leg when flexed, and it appears slightly shorter than his left. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis, and what would be the appropriate management?Your Answer: Manual relocation
Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedics for in situ fixation with a cannulated screw
Explanation:A boy who is obese is experiencing pain in his groin, thigh, and knee. This could potentially be a case of slipped capital femoral epiphysis.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of left groin pain and a limp that has been gradually developing over the past 5 weeks. He has no medical or family history and his right leg is unaffected. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in internal rotation of the left leg, but no swelling or warmth around the joints. The patient's vital signs are normal, and his height is in the 50th percentile while his weight is in the 95th percentile. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes' disease
Correct Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is more likely to occur in obese boys aged 10-15, as obesity is a risk factor for this condition. It is caused by a weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate, which can also be due to endocrine disorders or rapid growth. Loss of internal rotation of the affected leg is a common finding during examination. Perthes’ disease can also cause groin pain, but it typically affects children aged 4 to 8 years old. Being male and having a lower socioeconomic status are also risk factors for this condition. Septic arthritis is unlikely in this case as the child’s vital signs are normal, and it usually presents with a hot and swollen joint and systemic illness. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually detected during routine hip examinations in the first year of life, using Barlow/Ortolani tests and assessing hip abduction.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a 1 week history of fever, lethargy, and irritability. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have not improved despite the GP's recommendation of antipyretics. The child has also experienced a loss of appetite and diarrhea during this time. This morning, a red rash appeared all over her body.
Upon examination, the child appears toxic, has a temperature of 39.2ºC, and is tachycardic. The doctor observes a widespread maculopapular rash, left-sided cervical lymph node enlargement, and a swollen, erythematosus tongue.
What is the most important investigation for this child, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:To detect the development of coronary artery aneurysms, it is crucial to conduct an echocardiogram when dealing with Kawasaki disease. This is because such an examination can identify any coronary artery dilation or aneurysm formation, which is the primary cause of death associated with this condition. While an ECG is also necessary to evaluate any conduction abnormalities that may arise due to carditis, it is not as fatal as coronary artery complications. On the other hand, a chest x-ray or lumbar puncture is unnecessary since Kawasaki disease typically does not affect the lungs or central nervous system. Similarly, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not required unless liver function tests suggest gallbladder distension.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 5-year-old son into surgery as she suspects he may have head lice. Which of the following statements about head lice is false?
Your Answer: Wet combing alone is a suitable first-line treatment
Correct Answer: Children should be excluded from school until treatment has been started
Explanation:It is not recommended to exclude children from school due to head lice.
Understanding Head Lice
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits are the empty egg shells and are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. They cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. School exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
Understanding head lice is important to prevent its spread and manage the condition effectively. By knowing the symptoms, diagnosis, and management, we can take necessary precautions and seek appropriate treatment when needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old child complains of difficulty in hearing. He has had several fractures following minor falls. On examination, his legs appear short and deformed, and his sclera appear blue.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:Genetic Disorders Affecting Bone and Connective Tissue
There are several genetic disorders that affect bone and connective tissue, resulting in various physical characteristics and health complications.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a condition where bones are excessively fragile and prone to fractures. Type I, also called osteogenesis imperfecta tarda, is characterized by bony deformities, blue sclera, teeth abnormalities, deafness, and heart valve abnormalities.
Achondroplasia, previously known as dwarfism, is characterized by short limbs on a normally sized trunk, with a large skull and small face.
Alport Syndrome is characterized by deafness and renal failure.
Marfan Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder that results in tall stature, long arms, arachnodactyly, high-arched palate, and pectus excavatum.
Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a condition where bones are dense and brittle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 3-month-old baby who was brought in by her father. He is extremely worried as his baby is generally unwell. Sarah has not been feeding well over the past 24 hours and has been very irritable. Her father had noted a fever of 38.5ºC this morning and this prompted him to seek medical attention. Her nappies continued to appear wet over this time and her father noted she had vomited once at home. No other symptoms were noted without cough.
On examination, Sarah's general tone is maintained and she does not appear to display any signs of hypotonia. She is moving all 4 limbs equally. The chest remains clear. An area of non-blanching petechiae was noted.
A lumbar puncture was performed with the following results:
Parameter Value Normal range
White cell count 200 cells <3
Neutrophils 180 cells 0
Lymphocytes 20 cells <22
Protein 1.8g/L <1g/L
CSF: serum glucose ratio 0.3 >=0.6
What is the appropriate treatment for Sarah's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IV cefotaxime
Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin
Explanation:Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy visits his family doctor complaining of a limp that has been bothering him for the past 48 hours. He mentions having a runny nose and cough for a few days, but he feels better today. He reports pain in his left hip.
During the examination, the boy seems to be in good spirits and can bear weight with an antalgic gait.
His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and his heart rate is 90 beats per minute. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and his temperature is 38.5ºC.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on this information?Your Answer: Refer urgently for same-day assessment
Explanation:The option to reassure and provide safety netting advice is not appropriate for a child with an acutely irritable hip and fever >38.5ºC, as septic arthritis is a possible diagnosis that requires urgent assessment, including synovial aspiration. Although transient tenosynovitis is the most likely diagnosis, the presence of fever warrants further investigation to rule out septic arthritis. The recommendation of a Pavlik harness and orthopaedic review is not applicable unless developmental dysplasia of the hip is confirmed. Rest and over-the-counter analgesia are not sufficient management for this patient, as urgent referral for same-day assessment is necessary to exclude septic arthritis.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A ten-year-old boy with a history of asthma and eczema visits the urgent GP clinic due to a cough. Upon entering the room, he appears to be in good health and is able to speak in complete sentences. His oxygen saturation level is 97% in air, peak expiratory flow is 60% of expected, heart rate is 115/min, and respiratory rate is 28/min. During chest examination, widespread wheezing is observed. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs
Explanation:His respiratory rate and heart rate are both within normal limits, with a respiratory rate of less than 30 breaths per minute and a heart rate of less than 125 beats per minute. The appropriate treatment for his asthma attack is oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer, with one puff administered every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. It is important to administer steroid therapy to all children experiencing an asthma attack. The use of high flow oxygen and a salbutamol nebuliser is not necessary, as his SP02 is already at 97%.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 4-week-old boy has been experiencing vomiting after feeds. His mother reports that he is extremely hungry, but shortly after consuming food, he has an episode of projectile vomiting. The vomit does not contain blood, bile or feces. Upon examination, a mass is detected in the epigastrium that is approximately the size of a small grape.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Infantile pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities of the Gastrointestinal Tract in Infants
Infants can experience various congenital abnormalities of the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to serious health complications. Here are some of the most common abnormalities and their characteristics:
Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
This condition occurs due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric muscle, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. Symptoms include non-bilious projectile vomiting within half an hour from feeding and failure to thrive. Diagnosis is via ultrasound, and treatment involves Ramstedt pyloromyotomy.Meckel’s Diverticulum
This is the most common congenital abnormality of the small intestine, caused by persistence of the vitelline duct. Patients are usually asymptomatic, but can present with painless rectal bleeding, signs of obstruction, or acute appendicitis-like symptoms. Treatment involves excision of the diverticulum and adjacent ileal segment.Malrotation of the Small Intestine with Volvulus
This occurs due to disrupted development of the bowel during the embryonic period. It can present acutely as a volvulus with abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. Treatment involves surgical intervention.Hirschsprung’s Disease
This is a congenital disorder caused by absent ganglia in the distal colon, resulting in functional obstruction. Infants present within the first 48 hours of life, having not passed meconium. Diagnosis is via rectal biopsy, and treatment involves surgical intervention.Imperforate Anus
This is a congenital malformation occurring with an incidence of 1 in 5000 births. Infants may have abdominal distension and fail to produce meconium. Treatment involves intravenous hydration and surgical evaluation.In conclusion, early diagnosis and prompt treatment of these congenital abnormalities are crucial for the health and well-being of infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy, during the delivery there was a large amount of meconium. On observation of the baby just after the birth, what signs would indicate the need for the neonatal team to evaluate the baby?
Your Answer: Respiratory rate 75/minute
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.
What mutation is he most likely to have?Your Answer: BRCA mutation
Explanation:Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.
Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes
Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.
There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.
It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP. He has been complaining of pain when going to the toilet. The foster mother explains that he often has pain when urinating and as a younger child often cried when passing urine. He has only recently developed pain while defecating, however, the foster mother is clearly concerned and consents to the GP examining the child.
What clinical findings are most likely to indicate child sexual abuse in a 7-year-old child who complains of pain when going to the toilet and has a history of crying while passing urine?Your Answer: Anal fissures and recurrent urinary tract infections
Explanation:Childhood sexual abuse may be indicated by the presence of anal fissures and recurrent UTIs in children.
Signs of childhood sexual abuse can include various symptoms such as pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain. However, haemorrhoids and Candida infections are not specific clinical features that suggest a child may be at risk of sexual abuse.
Understanding Sexual Abuse in Children
Sexual abuse is a serious issue that affects many children, but unfortunately, adults often do not believe their allegations. Children with special educational needs are at a higher risk of being sexually abused. The abusers can be anyone, but statistics show that 30% of abusers are fathers, 15% are unrelated men, and 10% are older brothers.
There are several features that may be present in a sexually abused child, including pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain.
It is important to recognize these signs and take action to protect children from sexual abuse. By understanding the signs and symptoms, we can work towards preventing and addressing this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: A third fontanelle
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline
Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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Which one of the following is not included in the Apgar score for evaluating a neonate?
Your Answer: Capillary refill time
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess an infant in the neonatal unit. The baby was delivered at 39 weeks gestation without any complications. The parents are hesitant to give their consent for vitamin K administration, citing their preference for a more natural approach. How would you advise the parents on the recommended practice for neonatal vitamin K?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Once-off IM injection
Explanation:Vitamin K is crucial in preventing haemorrhagic disease in newborns and can be administered orally or intramuscularly. While both methods are licensed for neonates, it is advisable to recommend the IM route to parents due to concerns about compliance and the shorter duration of treatment (one-off injection). The oral form is not recommended for healthy neonates as there is a risk of inadequate dosage due to forgetfulness or the baby vomiting up the medication.
Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention
Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. breastfed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.
To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is brought to the Emergency Department with persistent vomiting for the past 2 days. The mother reports that the vomiting is forceful and occurs after every feed. Despite attempts to soothe the baby, the vomiting has not subsided. Upon examination, the infant appears to be in good health. The heart rate is 130 bpm, respiratory rate is 32/min, blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, capillary refill is 2 seconds, and mucous membranes are slightly dry. The infant has no fever. The paediatric registrar is called to assess the infant and decides to admit the infant for further investigation. Which diagnostic test would be most helpful in determining the cause of the vomiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:The baby in this situation displays typical indications of pyloric stenosis. If a young infant experiences projectile vomiting after each feeding, it is important to consider the possibility of pyloric stenosis. The most effective method to visualize the issue is through an ultrasound scan, which can identify the thickening of the circular pylorus muscles. This is also the safest and most straightforward diagnostic test for a young baby. Additionally, a thorough abdominal examination may uncover a detectable lump in the upper left quadrant.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds that the hips are positive for Barlow and Ortolani tests. What is the most probable situation for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Female
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in females. Positive Barlow and Ortolani tests are indicative of DDH. High birth weight, breech presentation, and oligohydramnios are risk factors for DDH, while C-section birth is not a relevant factor.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old boy is seen by his doctor. He has been experiencing fever and cold symptoms for the past 2 days. Recently, he has developed a harsh cough and his parents are concerned. During the examination, the doctor observes that the child has a temperature of 38ºC and is experiencing inspiratory stridor, but there are no signs of intercostal recession. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Croup
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes
Explanation:When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:
– Children aged less than 18 months
– Diagnostic uncertainty
– Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
– Focal features during the seizure
– Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
– Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
– No focus of infection identified
– Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
– Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infectionIt is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is admitted to hospital. He was diagnosed with Down syndrome soon after birth. He has not opened his bowels for the past few days and complains of abdominal pain. His abdomen is distended, and he has had several episodes of vomiting. The mother denies any complication during pregnancy. An abdominal X-ray does not show any double bubble sign but rather shows a picture of bowel obstruction.
Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital condition that causes functional obstruction of the colon due to the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which confirms the absence of ganglion cells. Other diagnostic procedures, such as abdominal ultrasound, upper GI endoscopy, erect chest X-ray, and colonoscopy, are not useful in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. An abdominal X-ray may be performed to rule out other causes of abdominal distension. However, in most cases, rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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