-
Question 1
Correct
-
In addition to its effects on bone, PTH primarily acts on which organ?
Your Answer: Kidney
Explanation:The Effects of PTH on Bone and Kidney
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) has two main targets in the body: the bone and the kidney. Its primary goal in the bone is to increase calcium levels by stimulating the activity of osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. In the kidney, PTH has a different effect. It increases the reabsorption of calcium and decreases the absorption of phosphate, which helps to maintain the balance of these minerals in the body. Additionally, PTH stimulates the production of 1-alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D in the kidney, which is important for calcium absorption and bone health. Overall, PTH plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body, and its effects on bone and kidney function are essential for maintaining healthy bones and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male presents for his annual abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening test. He has a past medical history of a small AAA, which has consistently measured 3.2 cm in width on annual follow up scans since it was discovered 6 years ago. On assessment, it is discovered the patient's AAA has grown by 1.6cm, to a new width of 4.8 cm since his last assessment one year ago. He is asymptomatic and feels well at the time of assessment.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Repeat scan in 12 months
Correct Answer: 2-week-wait referral for surgical repair
Explanation:If an aneurysm is rapidly enlarging, regardless of its size, it should be repaired even if there are no symptoms present. In the case of this patient, their AAA has grown from a small aneurysm to a medium-sized one, which would typically require ultrasound screening every three months. However, since the aneurysm has grown more than 1 cm in the past year, it is considered rapidly enlarging and requires referral for surgical repair within two weeks. Urgent surgical repair is only necessary if there is suspicion of a ruptured AAA. For non-rapidly enlarging, medium-sized AAAs, a repeat scan in three months is recommended, while a repeat scan in six months is not necessary for any AAA case.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
Temperature 39.5 °C
Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
Heart rate 120 bpm
Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?Your Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg
Explanation:Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
– Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
– Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
– Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
– A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 65-year-old male patient visits an outpatient cardiology clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of heart failure, type-2 diabetes, and osteoporosis. For the past 3 years, he has been taking NovoRapid (rapid-acting insulin analogue) 10iU three times daily, Lantus (insulin glargine) 3 iU once daily, ramipril 10 mg once daily, bisoprolol 5mg once daily, and AdCal D3 (calcium and vitamin D) two tablets once daily without any adverse effects. Recently, he was prescribed amiloride 10 mg once daily. His blood work reveals:
Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 6.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 92 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Which of his medications could have interacted with the new prescription to cause the abnormal blood results?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Understanding Potassium-Sparing Diuretics
Potassium-sparing diuretics are a type of medication that can be divided into two categories: epithelial sodium channel blockers and aldosterone antagonists. The former includes drugs like amiloride and triamterene, while the latter includes spironolactone and eplerenone. These medications are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.
However, caution must be exercised when using potassium-sparing diuretics in patients taking ACE inhibitors, as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is often given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation, as these medications can cause hypokalaemia.
On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct. They are commonly used in patients with cirrhosis who develop secondary hyperaldosteronism, with relatively large doses of 100 or 200mg often prescribed. Overall, understanding the different types of potassium-sparing diuretics and their indications is crucial in ensuring safe and effective treatment for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 6 months. He reports that the pain is particularly bad before he wakes up in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed increasing stiffness in his right wrist and left third metacarpal joints. Upon examination, you observe reduced spinal movements in lateral spinal flexion and rotation, as well as a positive Schober's test. The patient has not received any prior treatment for his back pain and has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: Physiotherapy and NSAIDs
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) patients can often find relief from their symptoms through the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) alone, according to the most recent guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR). In fact, continuous NSAID therapy is recommended for those with active and persistent symptoms, as it has been shown to slow the progression of the disease. While systemic glucocorticoids are not effective for managing AS, intra-articular steroid injections may be helpful for peripheral joint or enthesitis issues. Of traditional disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), only sulphasalazine has been found to be effective for peripheral joint involvement, but it does not work for those with axial joint involvement. For those with insufficiently controlled symptoms, TNF-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept, infliximab, or adalimumab are recommended, without significant difference in efficacy between the three.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?Your Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary
Explanation:Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man
Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with symptoms of a vasculitic rash, joint pains, and swollen ankles. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and experiencing weight loss. During the visit, his urine dipstick shows blood and protein, and urgent blood tests reveal worsening kidney function with elevated inflammatory markers. The doctor suspects microscopic polyangiitis and requests an autoimmune screening. What autoantibody is expected to be positive in this case?
Your Answer: p-ANCA with MPO specificity
Explanation:ANCA and its association with small vessel vasculitides
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are a characteristic feature of small vessel vasculitides such as microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). These antibodies can also be seen in eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (eGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome. ANCA has two staining patterns, cytoplasmic (c-ANCA) and perinuclear (p-ANCA), which are detected through immunofluorescence. These antibodies are directed against proteins within the cytoplasmic granules of neutrophils. In most cases, c-ANCA has specificity for proteinase 3 (PR3) and p-ANCA has specificity for myeloperoxidase (MPO).
In patients with GPA, ANCA positivity is observed in approximately 90% of cases, with 80-90% being c-ANCA positive with PR3 specificity. In contrast, in patients with MPA, approximately 60% are p-ANCA positive with MPO specificity, and around 35% have c-ANCA.
The history of the patient in question is more consistent with MPA, and therefore, the most likely test to be positive is p-ANCA with MPO specificity. ANA is usually associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which could present with similar symptoms, but the patient’s age and sex are more in line with ANCA vasculitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
What is the location of the lesion?Your Answer: Ulnar neuropathy
Explanation:Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy
When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.
A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.
Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.
A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.
Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.
By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant past medical history or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms
Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.
Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.
Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.
Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.
Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.
Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)