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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
      What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Corrigan’s sign

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions

      Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.

      Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.

      Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.

      Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.

      Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain and pain in his left shoulder. He had spent the previous 2 h shoveling snow, but had to stop because of the pain. He admits to several prior episodes of chest pain under similar circumstances. No ST segment changes are seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The patient is given sublingual nitroglycerin, which relieves his pain, and is admitted for an overnight stay. The following morning, serum cardiac enzymes are within normal limits and no ECG changes are seen.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Unstable (crescendo) angina

      Correct Answer: Stable (typical) angina

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Angina

      When a patient presents with chest pain, it is important to differentiate between the different types of angina. In the case of a patient who has experienced chest pain triggered by heavy physical labor without characteristic ECG changes, and without rise in serum cardiac enzymes, it is likely that they are experiencing stable (typical) angina. This is not the patient’s first episode, and the pain is not becoming progressively worse with less severe triggers, ruling out unstable (crescendo) angina. Additionally, the fact that the pain was triggered by physical activity rather than occurring at rest rules out Prinzmetal variant angina. Subendocardial infarction and transmural infarction can also be ruled out as both would result in elevated cardiac enzyme levels and characteristic ECG changes, such as ST depression or ST elevation and Q waves, respectively. Therefore, based on the patient’s presentation, stable (typical) angina is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
      What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.

      Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.

      In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man is seen at cardiology outpatients 6 weeks after an anterior...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man is seen at cardiology outpatients 6 weeks after an anterior myocardial infarction. His wife complains that she cannot sleep at night due to his constant coughing and throat clearing.
      Which medication is likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Perindopril

      Explanation:

      Common Side-Effects of Cardiovascular Medications

      Cardiovascular medications are commonly prescribed to manage various heart conditions. However, they can also cause side-effects that can affect a patient’s quality of life. Here are some common side-effects of popular cardiovascular medications:

      Perindopril: This medication can cause a dry, persistent cough, as well as hyperkalaemia, fatigue, dizziness, and hypotension.

      Amiodarone: Side-effects of this medication include dizziness, visual disturbance, unco-ordination, tremors, paraesthesia, deranged liver function tests (LFTs), deranged thyroid function tests (TFTs), and lung fibrosis.

      Atenolol: β-blockers like atenolol can cause fatigue, Raynaud’s phenomenon, bronchospasm, change in bowel habit, and sexual dysfunction.

      Atorvastatin: Statins like atorvastatin can cause myopathy/myositis, derangement of glucose control, and deranged LFTs.

      Candesartan: Angiotensin receptor blockers like candesartan can cause dizziness, headache, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose orthostatic hypotension. They are often prescribed to patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors due to dry cough.

      In conclusion, patients taking cardiovascular medications should be aware of these potential side-effects and report any concerns to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
      What is the most probable location of the occlusion?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction

      Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old, diabetic man, presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He has experienced several episodes of similar pain, usually on exercise. Increasingly he has found the pain beginning while he is at rest. A diagnosis of angina pectoris is made.
      Which branch of the coronary arteries supplies the left atrium of the heart?

      Your Answer: Circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Branches

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are two main coronary arteries: the left and right coronary arteries. These arteries branch off into smaller arteries that supply different parts of the heart. Here are some of the main branches and their functions:

      1. Circumflex artery: This artery supplies the left atrium.

      2. Sinoatrial (SA) nodal artery: This artery supplies the SA node, which is responsible for initiating the heartbeat. In most people, it arises from the right coronary artery, but in some, it comes from the left circumflex artery.

      3. Left anterior descending artery: This artery comes from the left coronary artery and supplies the interventricular septum and both ventricles.

      4. Left marginal artery: This artery is a branch of the circumflex artery and supplies the left ventricle.

      5. Posterior interventricular branch: This artery comes from the right coronary artery and supplies both ventricles and the interventricular septum.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary arteries is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?

      Your Answer: Posterior interventricular branch

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance

      The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:

      1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.

      2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.

      3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.

      4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.

      5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 118 kg. During her last visit, her ECG showed atrial fibrillation (AF) with a heart rate of 180 bpm, and she was started on bisoprolol. She underwent a 48-hour ECG monitoring, which revealed non-paroxysmal AF. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Start her on digoxin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure

      When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice for medication, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with either a novel oral anticoagulant or warfarin is also necessary. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may be reasonable, but considering the patient’s clinical presentation and past medical history, it may not be the best option. Amlodipine will not have an effect on rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Amiodarone should not be first-line treatment in this patient due to her heart failure. Overall, the best treatment option for AF in a patient with heart failure should be carefully considered based on the individual’s medical history and current condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (7/10) 70%
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