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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of a fine tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of a fine tremor in both hands that has been present for two months. He has a medical history of chronic depression and has been taking lithium for several years. He drinks 10 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked. During the examination, a fine bilateral postural tremor is observed in the hands and fingers, which is most noticeable when extending the arms in front of the body. What is the probable cause of this patient's tremor?

      Your Answer: Alcohol consumption

      Correct Answer: Chronic lithium use

      Explanation:

      The fine tremor observed in this patient is likely due to chronic use of lithium. On the other hand, a coarse tremor is typically seen in cases of acute lithium toxicity. The patient’s alcohol consumption is not a likely cause of the tremor as it is within recommended limits. A cerebellar stroke is also unlikely given the patient’s age and absence of risk factors. Multiple sclerosis is a less likely cause compared to lithium, as the patient is known to be taking lithium and an intention tremor due to cerebellar dysfunction is more commonly associated with multiple sclerosis.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2465
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions experiencing leakage whenever she coughs or sneezes, despite regularly performing pelvic floor muscle exercises. The patient expresses her reluctance towards any surgical intervention for this issue. What would be the next suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuses surgery, duloxetine may be prescribed as a treatment option. Bladder retraining exercises are not effective for stress incontinence, but may be helpful for urge incontinence. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are medications used to manage urge incontinence, while desmopressin is used for nocturnal enuresis.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.

      The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.

      What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?

      Your Answer: Cigarette smoking

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that the baby has ambiguous genitalia. The parents are understandably upset and want to know what could have caused this. What is the most probable reason for the ambiguous genitalia in this situation?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborns is congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Kallman’s syndrome does not result in ambiguous genitalia, as those affected are typically male but have hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, which is usually diagnosed during puberty. Androgen insensitivity syndrome results in individuals who are phenotypically female and do not have ambiguous genitalia. Male pseudohermaphroditism is a rare cause of ambiguous genitalia, with external genitalia typically being female or ambiguous and testes usually present.

      During fetal development, the gonads are initially undifferentiated. However, the presence of the sex-determining gene (SRY gene) on the Y chromosome causes the gonads to differentiate into testes. In the absence of this gene (i.e. in a female), the gonads differentiate into ovaries. Ambiguous genitalia in newborns is most commonly caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, but can also be caused by true hermaphroditism or maternal ingestion of androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the primary mode of operation of ondansetron in elderly patients? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of operation of ondansetron in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Drugs that Affect Serotonin Receptors

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, appetite, and sleep. Drugs that act on serotonin receptors can have various effects on the body. Some drugs, such as sumatriptan and ergotamine, are agonists of the 5-HT1 receptor and are used to treat migraines. On the other hand, drugs like pizotifen and methysergide are antagonists of the 5-HT2 receptor and are used to prevent migraines. However, methysergide is rarely used due to the risk of retroperitoneal fibrosis.

      Cyproheptadine is another 5-HT2 receptor antagonist that is used to control diarrhea in patients with carcinoid syndrome. Lastly, ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic. It is important to note that while 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraines, 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis. Understanding the effects of drugs on serotonin receptors is crucial in the treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices

      Peptic Ulcer:
      Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.

      Atrophic Gastritis:
      Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.

      Barrett’s Oesophagus:
      Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.

      Gastric Cancer:
      Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.

      Oesophageal Varices:
      Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of neck pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of neck pain. She was in a minor car accident three days ago where her car was hit from behind. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the bones and she has a normal range of motion without neurological symptoms.

      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Organise cervical spine x rays

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and prescribe analgesia

      Explanation:

      Soft Tissue Injuries to the Neck

      Soft tissue injuries to the neck are a common occurrence, often resulting in delayed presentation to the emergency department as symptoms worsen over time. It is important to have a low threshold for immobilizing the cervical spine and obtaining x-rays if there is cervical spine tenderness, reduced range of movement, or any neurological signs. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory preparations are the preferred method of analgesia for these patients. Collars are not recommended as early mobilization is the best treatment. Patients should be advised to see their GP for review and appropriate physiotherapy can be arranged if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) for his routine diabetes assessment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes one month ago. He also has a history of hypertension, obesity and hyperlipidaemia and smoking. He was recently commenced on metformin, ramipril, atorvastatin and aspirin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. The following laboratory results are obtained:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 8 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient’s hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and recheck in one week

      Explanation:

      Managing Mild Hyperkalaemia in Primary Care

      Mild hyperkalaemia, with potassium levels between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, can be managed in primary care with a review of medication and diet, as well as regular monitoring of serum potassium levels. In cases where the hyperkalaemia is likely secondary to ACE inhibitor therapy, it is recommended to discontinue the medication and recheck potassium levels in one week. Renal function should also be monitored before and after starting ACE inhibitor/ARB treatment.

      In contrast, metformin does not usually cause hyperkalaemia and should not be discontinued unless there are other underlying causes of elevated lactate levels. Hospital admission and administration of IV insulin and dextrose or bicarbonate are not necessary for mild hyperkalaemia with normal renal function and a normal ECG.

      Adding a loop diuretic is also not recommended as the treatment for mild hyperkalaemia is to stop the offending agent and recheck potassium levels. It is important to manage mild hyperkalaemia appropriately to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
      Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: X-ray spine

      Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Explanation:

      Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression

      Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.

      For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.

      In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.

      Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      115
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed