00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history. Which of the following is a risk factor for GAD development?

      Your Answer: Being under 20-years-old

      Correct Answer: Being divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Generalised anxiety disorder is more likely to occur in individuals who are divorced or separated.

      There are several risk factors associated with the development of GAD, including being between the ages of 35 and 54, living alone, and being a lone parent. On the other hand, being between the ages of 16 and 24 and being married or cohabiting are protective factors against GAD.

      It is important to note that having a hyperthyroid disease or atrial fibrillation may cause symptoms similar to GAD, but they are not considered risk factors for developing the disorder.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She reports feeling well and denies any recent infections or allergies. She has never smoked or consumed alcohol. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, clear chest sounds, and normal heart sounds. The patients BMI is 34.6. Her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds and there is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the ASA classification for this patient?

      Your Answer: ASA I

      Correct Answer: ASA II

      Explanation:

      The patient’s pre-operative morbidity is assessed using the ASA scoring system, which takes into account various factors including BMI. Despite having no significant medical history and not smoking or drinking, the patient’s BMI is elevated and can be rounded up to 35 kg/m², placing her in the ASA II category. This category includes patients with a BMI between 30 and 40. A healthy patient who does not smoke or drink and has a BMI below 30 kg/m² is classified as ASA I. Patients with severe systemic diseases such as poorly controlled diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or morbid obesity (BMI > 40 kg/m²) are classified as ASA III. ASA IV is reserved for patients with severe systemic diseases that pose a constant threat to life, such as ongoing cardiac ischaemia or recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, and end-stage renal disease.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI during the study period?

      Your Answer: 30

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.

      High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.

      Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of epistaxis and mucosal bleeding during tooth brushing. He has no significant medical history except for a cold he had 3 weeks ago. Upon examination, his vital signs are normal, but he has multiple bruises and petechiae on his upper and lower limbs. The following laboratory tests were ordered: Hb 140 g/L (135-180), Platelets 33 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with petechiae and no fever, ITP should be considered as a possible diagnosis. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes thrombocytopenia without any identifiable cause. It is most commonly found in children and women and often follows a viral illness. Symptoms include mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, petechiae, and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as the patient’s normal haemoglobin and white cell count do not suggest malignancy.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as there is no evidence of unregulated bleeding or thrombosis triggered by trauma, sepsis, obstetric disorders, or malignancy.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of additional symptoms and the presence of bruising and easy bleeding make ITP more likely. HSP is a form of IgA vasculitis that causes a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, and arthralgia, and is commonly triggered by a viral infection. Most cases of HSP are self-limiting or resolve with symptomatic treatment.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?

      Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.

      Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.

      What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities

      When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.

      The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 93-year-old man was admitted to your medical ward in Scotland a week...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man was admitted to your medical ward in Scotland a week ago, having developed pneumonia. He has a history of dementia, has had two previous small strokes and lives in a residential home. His dementia has been worsening for 5 years. He has difficulty remembering who the nursing home staff are. The staff report that his appetite is poor and that he has gradually lost weight over the last few months.
      He is treated with antibiotics with good effect. A week later, a swallowing assessment is performed by the speech and language therapist, which suggests a high risk of aspiration. As a result of this assessment, the care team wish to stop him taking food and drink by mouth and start intravenous (IV) fluids.
      How should you proceed next?

      Your Answer: Contact the nursing home to see whether they are happy with the decision

      Correct Answer: Talk to the patient, explaining what you want to do and why, and listen to his answers

      Explanation:

      Involving Patients in Decision Making: The Importance of Communication

      Explanation: When it comes to making decisions about a patient’s care, it is crucial to involve the patient in the process. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 emphasizes that it cannot be assumed that any patient is incapable of making a decision about their care. Therefore, it is important to talk to the patient, explain what you want to do and why, and listen to their answers.

      It is also important to note that relatives are not allowed to agree or refuse management for the patient. While they can provide valuable input, the patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration.

      In the scenario of starting an IV, it is essential to speak to the patient first before proceeding. The patient’s consent should be obtained before any medical intervention is carried out.

      If there are concerns about the patient’s capacity to make decisions, it is important to assess their understanding of the information provided. This can be done by giving them the information and checking whether they understand what has been said. Written information can also be provided to supplement the conversation.

      In summary, effective communication with the patient is crucial in involving them in decision making about their care. The patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration, and any concerns about capacity should be assessed through communication and information sharing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?

      Your Answer: Absorption of fluid

      Correct Answer: Leak from catheter site

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds

      When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.

      Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.

      In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/2) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed