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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules

      Explanation:

      Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases

      Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.

      Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.

      Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the left groin and chronic lower back pain after falling in his garden. He is unable to walk. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. His pulse is 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure (BP) 140/80 mm Hg. Fracture of the left neck of the femur is identified on X-ray and treated.
      Routine laboratory results are below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum calcium concentration 2.1 mmol/l 2.15 – 2.6 mmol/l
      Serum phosphate concentration 0.8 mmol/l 0.8 – 1.4 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone level 60 pg/ml 11 – 54 pg/ml
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5 – 7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 μmol/l 60 – 110 μmol/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Vitamin D Deficiency, Hyperparathyroidism, and Multiple Myeloma

      Vitamin D deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, and multiple myeloma are conditions that can affect calcium and phosphate levels in the body. To diagnose these conditions, various tests are used.

      Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels are the best test to determine vitamin D status. Levels lower than 25 nmol/l indicate positive vitamin D deficiency. Treatment should commence if serum 25(OH)D levels are in the range of 25–50 nmol/l.

      Serum protein electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia.

      Ultrasonogram (USG) neck is used to assess parathyroid adenoma, which is associated with hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, serum PTH levels are very high with increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels.

      Urine Bence Jones Protein is positive in multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia, with impaired renal function.

      24-hour urinary calcium is elevated in hyperparathyroidism, type I renal tubular acidosis, vitamin D intoxication, and Bartter syndrome. However, it has no role in the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, these diagnostic tests can help healthcare professionals identify and treat these conditions, leading to improved patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Can you review a 73-year-old man who has experienced an inferior myocardial infarction?...

    Incorrect

    • Can you review a 73-year-old man who has experienced an inferior myocardial infarction? Upon admission, he presents with bradycardia, with a heart rate of 41, and a BP of 100/60 mmHg. Bilateral basal crackles consistent with heart failure are heard upon chest auscultation. Do you know which coronary artery typically supplies the sinoatrial node?

      Your Answer: Right marginal

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The Coronary Arteries and Blood Supply to the Heart

      The heart is supplied with blood by the right and left coronary arteries, which arise from small openings called aortic sinuses. These arteries are unique as they fill during diastole. The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium and ventricle, while the left coronary artery divides into the left anterior descending artery and the circumflex artery. The left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior septum and the anterior left ventricular wall, while the circumflex artery gives off branches to the left atrium and the left ventricle. Variations in the branching patterns of the coronaries are common.

      Most people have an equal blood supply to the heart from both the right and left coronary arteries. However, in some cases, the sinoatrial artery branching off from the origin of the right coronary artery supplies the SA node, while in others, the SA nodal branch arises from the circumflex branch of the circumflex artery. Some blood from the capillary beds in the heart wall drains directly into the heart cavities, while the majority returns through veins that accompany the arteries and empty into the right atrium via the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that extends to the buttocks for the past 3 months. The pain is most severe upon waking up, but cycling seems to alleviate it. The patient denies any injury but is an avid cyclist. Additionally, the patient experiences fatigue. The patient had Chlamydia and was treated with doxycycline 8 months ago. The patient has a history of anxiety and does not take any regular medication, but ibuprofen helps alleviate the pain. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Exercise is typically beneficial for patients with inflammatory back pain, such as those with ankylosing spondylitis. This condition is more common in males and presents with symptoms such as morning stiffness, back pain lasting over 3 months, and improvement with exercise. Inflammation can also affect the sacroiliac joints, causing buttock pain, and patients may experience fatigue. Lumbar spinal stenosis is an unlikely differential as it presents with back and buttock pain due to nerve compression, and patients may have leg weakness. Psoriatic arthritis can also cause spondyloarthritis, but it typically presents with peripheral arthritis and/or dactylitis, and patients may have a history of psoriasis. Reactive arthritis is also an unlikely differential as it typically presents 1-4 weeks after infection, and patients may have other symptoms such as enthesitis, peripheral arthritis, conjunctivitis, skin lesions, and urethritis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old man is in a car accident and is diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is in a car accident and is diagnosed with a pelvic fracture. During his hospital stay, the nursing staff notifies you that he is experiencing lower abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, you discover a bloated and sensitive bladder. What is the optimal course of action?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      Due to the patient’s history, there is a potential for urethral injury, therefore, urethral catheterisation should not be performed.

      Lower Genitourinary Tract Trauma: Types of Injury and Management

      Lower genitourinary tract trauma can occur due to blunt trauma, with most bladder injuries associated with pelvic fractures. However, these injuries can easily be overlooked during trauma assessment. In fact, up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries.

      Urethral injuries are mainly found in males and can be identified by blood at the meatus in 50% of cases. There are two types of urethral injury: bulbar rupture and membranous rupture. Bulbar rupture is the most common and is caused by straddle-type injuries, such as those from bicycles. The triad signs of urinary retention, perineal hematoma, and blood at the meatus are indicative of this type of injury. Membranous rupture, on the other hand, can be extra or intraperitoneal and is commonly due to pelvic fractures. Penile or perineal edema/hematoma and a displaced prostate upwards are also signs of this type of injury. An ascending urethrogram is the recommended investigation, and management involves surgical placement of a suprapubic catheter.

      External genitalia injuries, such as those to the penis and scrotum, can be caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure-enhancing devices, and mutilation.

      Bladder injuries can be intra or extraperitoneal and present with haematuria or suprapubic pain. A history of pelvic fracture and inability to void should always raise suspicion of bladder or urethral injury. Inability to retrieve all fluid used to irrigate the bladder through a Foley catheter is also indicative of bladder injury. An IVU or cystogram is the recommended investigation, and management involves laparotomy if intraperitoneal and conservative treatment if extraperitoneal.

      In summary, lower genitourinary tract trauma can have various types of injuries, and prompt diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?

      Your Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:

      – Children aged less than 18 months
      – Diagnostic uncertainty
      – Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
      – Focal features during the seizure
      – Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
      – Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
      – No focus of infection identified
      – Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
      – Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infection

      It is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to a medical ward in Scotland a week...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to a medical ward in Scotland a week ago, after a fall. This is his second admission due to a fall in the last 3 months. He is known to have mild dementia, hypertension and osteoporosis with previous hip fracture.
      He lives alone in his own home, with the bathroom and bedroom upstairs. He has poor balance, but refuses to use a walking aid as he doesn't want people to think that he is an ‘old man’. His Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) was 23/30.
      The team recommend a move into sheltered housing, which he declines. After a week in hospital, you are called to see the patient, who insists on going home. A discharge plan of ‘meals-on-wheels’ and a package of care including a community alarm and twice-daily visits have been arranged, but he firmly declines these offers as well.

      Your Answer: Make every effort to get her to stay in hospital at least until the morning, and then arrange discharge in an orderly way

      Explanation:

      Ethical Approaches to a Patient Refusing Help

      When a patient refuses help, it can be a difficult situation for healthcare professionals to navigate. In this scenario, a patient is refusing a package of help and wants to leave the hospital. Here are some possible approaches and their ethical implications:

      1. Make every effort to get her to stay in hospital at least until the morning, and then arrange discharge in an orderly way. This approach respects the patient’s autonomy while also ensuring a safe and orderly discharge.

      2. Detain her under the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003, since she is clearly a danger to herself. This approach is not appropriate as there is no evidence that the patient is a danger to herself.

      3. Ignore her wishes since, by making these demands, she clearly has no understanding of the seriousness of the situation. This approach disregards the patient’s autonomy and is not ethical.

      4. Ignore her demands because of the potential for bad publicity if anything happens to her following discharge. This approach prioritizes the hospital’s reputation over the patient’s well-being and is not ethical.

      5. Conceal a sedative in a cup of tea and wait for the morning when someone else can make the decision. This approach is unethical and unprofessional, and delaying a difficult decision is not appropriate.

      In conclusion, the best approach is to respect the patient’s autonomy while also ensuring a safe and orderly discharge. It is important to document all discussions and decisions made with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead,...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is elevated and abducted. When attempting to gaze to the left, the diplopia exacerbates.
      What is the probable underlying cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is the perception of seeing two images stacked on top of each other. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding these symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment of fourth nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
      What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.

      An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.

      For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.

      Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed