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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress incontinence. She is found to have a cystocoele. The woman had four children, all vaginal deliveries. She also suffers from osteoarthritis and hypertension. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32 and she smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
What would your first line treatment be for this woman?Your Answer: Insert a ring pessary
Correct Answer: Advise smoking cessation, weight loss and pelvic floor exercises
Explanation:Treatment Options for Symptomatic Cystocoele: Lifestyle Modifications, Medications, and Surgeries
Symptomatic cystocoele can be treated through various options, depending on the severity of the condition. The first line of treatment focuses on lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. Topical oestrogen may also be prescribed to post- or perimenopausal women suffering from vaginal dryness, urinary incontinence, recurrent urinary tract infections, or superficial dyspareunia. Inserting a ring pessary is the second line of treatment, which needs to be changed every six months and puts the patient at risk of ulceration. Per vaginal surgery is the third line of treatment, which is only possible if the cystocoele is small and puts the patient at risk of fibroids and adhesions. Hysterectomy is not recommended as it increases the risk of cystocoele due to the severance of the uterine ligaments and reduction in support following removal of the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50 year old woman comes in with a 3 cm breast lump. After undergoing a mammogram, biopsy, and CT scan for staging, it is discovered that she has a single ER+ve, HER2-ve tumor that is confined to the breast. What is the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Wide local excision
Explanation:Breast cancer is primarily treated with surgery, with wide local excision (also known as breast conserving surgery) being the preferred option for tumours that are smaller than 4 cm.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
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You see a 47-year-old woman in clinic at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. She has a diagnosis of moderate depression and would like to try an antidepressant alongside her cognitive behavioural therapy, which is due to begin in 2 weeks. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any prescribed or over-the-counter medications.
Which of the following antidepressant medications would be most appropriate as the first-line treatment?Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Commonly Prescribed Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
Depression is a prevalent psychiatric disorder that is often managed by general practitioners with support from community mental health teams. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends antidepressants as a first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression, alongside high-intensity psychological therapy. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as citalopram are the preferred antidepressants for adults due to their better side-effect profile and lower risk of overdose. Fluoxetine is the only licensed antidepressant for children and adolescents and has the largest evidence base.
Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are an older class of antidepressants that are more toxic in overdose and commonly cause antimuscarinic effects at therapeutic doses. They are more commonly used in low doses for conditions such as neuropathic pain. Carbamazepine is commonly used in epilepsy and neuropathic pain and also plays a role as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder. Lithium is primarily used for treatment and prophylaxis in bipolar disorder and should be prescribed by specialists due to the need for dose titration to achieve a narrow therapeutic window. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, an older class of antidepressants with a wide range of side-effects and drug interactions. Patients on phenelzine should follow a low-tyramine diet to avoid an acute hypertensive crisis.
Understanding Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who is worried about his child's decreased appetite and mouth ulcers for the past three days. During the examination, a few blisters are observed on the soles of his feet. Vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.8ºC, heart rate of 125/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air.
The father reports that his child was born at full term through a normal delivery, is following the growth chart appropriately, and has received all the recommended vaccinations. What is the most probable cause of the child's symptoms?Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Coxsackie A16
Explanation:The child’s symptoms are indicative of hand, foot and mouth disease, which is caused by Coxsackie A16. The condition is characterized by mild systemic discomfort, oral ulcers, and vesicles on the palms and soles. It typically resolves on its own within 7 to 10 days, and the child may find relief from any pain by taking over-the-counter analgesics. Over-the-counter oral numbing sprays may also help alleviate sore throat symptoms. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, is associated with a higher fever than what this child is experiencing, as well as some distinct features that can be recalled using the mnemonic ‘CRASH and burn’. These include conjunctivitis (bilateral), non-vesicular rash, cervical adenopathy, swollen strawberry tongue, and hand or foot swelling, along with a fever that lasts for more than 5 days and is very high.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
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A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She gave birth 3 weeks ago and is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports a 4 day history of increasing pain in her left breast, which has not improved with continued feeding and expressing. During examination, she appears healthy, but her temperature is 38.5ºC. There is a small area of redness above the left nipple, which is sensitive to touch. She has no known allergies.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin & encourage to continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Lactation mastitis is a prevalent inflammatory condition of the breast that can have infectious or non-infectious origins. The primary cause is milk stasis, which can occur due to either overproduction or insufficient removal.
In cases of non-infectious mastitis, the accumulation of milk leads to an inflammatory response. Occasionally, an infection may develop through retrograde spread via a lactiferous duct or a traumatised nipple, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common organism.
Symptoms of lactation mastitis include breast pain (usually unilateral) accompanied by an erythematosus, warm, and tender area. Patients may also experience fever and flu-like symptoms.
The first-line approach to managing lactation mastitis is conservative, involving analgesia and encouraging effective milk removal (either through continued breastfeeding or expressing from the affected side) to prevent further milk stasis. It is also crucial to ensure proper positioning and attachment during feeding.
If symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of conservative management, antibiotics should be prescribed. The first-line choice is oral flucloxacillin (500 mg four times a day for 14 days), or erythromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav is the second-line choice.
In cases where conservative and antibiotic management do not improve symptoms, other more serious causes, such as inflammatory breast cancer, should be considered. (Source – CKS mastitis)
Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management
Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.
Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.
Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.
If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?
Your Answer: Often causes a bloody diarrhoea
Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She had an appendicectomy 10 years ago. She denies any recent per-vaginal (PV) bleeding and her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa. She also complains of right shoulder tip pain.
Observations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Heart rate 110 beats per minute 60–100 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg <120/<80 mmHg
Respiratory rate (RR) 16 breaths per minute 12–20 breaths per minute
O2 saturation 98% 94–99%
Temperature 37.2°C 36.5–37.5°C
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Severe Iliac Fossa Pain in Reproductive-Age Women
Severe, sudden-onset pain in the right or left iliac fossa is a common symptom of ectopic pregnancy in reproductive-age women. This pain may be accompanied by vaginal bleeding, shoulder tip pain, syncopal episodes, and shock. To rule out pregnancy, a urinary beta human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (b-HCG) test should be performed, followed by a transvaginal ultrasound scan to confirm the diagnosis.
Ovarian torsion may also cause iliac fossa pain, but it is unlikely to cause referred shoulder pain. Appendicitis is not a consideration in this scenario, as the patient does not have an appendix. Irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease are also unlikely diagnoses, as the patient’s tachycardia and right iliac fossa tenderness and guarding are not consistent with these conditions. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate between these potential causes of severe iliac fossa pain in reproductive-age women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
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A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for a routine antenatal visit. She is 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. On examination, she is well and has a symphysis fundal height of 33 cm. Her blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg and she has 2++ protein in the urine.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension in Pregnancy
Hypertension in pregnancy can be a serious condition that requires urgent assessment and management. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by both hypertension and proteinuria, is a common diagnosis. Early detection and management can prevent complications.
Normal blood pressure during pregnancy typically drops slightly in the first and second trimesters and rises back to pre-pregnancy levels in the third trimester. However, some patients may have chronic hypertension that was previously undiagnosed.
White-coat hypertension, where blood pressure is elevated in a clinical setting but normal at home, should be ruled out before a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made. This type of hypertension occurs after week 20 of pregnancy but without proteinuria. Regular screening for proteinuria is necessary in these cases.
In cases of mild to moderate hypertension, patients may be admitted to the hospital and monitored or started on oral labetalol. Severe hypertension requires immediate hospitalization and treatment. Overall, understanding hypertension in pregnancy is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents to his GP after receiving the results of his recent blood tests. He had initially complained of aches and pains a week ago, specifically in his shoulders and hips, which had been progressively worsening over the past 3 months. Upon examination, bilateral pain is noted in both the shoulders and hips, which is exacerbated by movement. No signs of muscular atrophy or weakness are observed. What would be the primary investigation recommended for the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: ESR and CRP
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms. The pain affecting both the pelvic and shoulder girdle in a bilateral manner, without any signs of weakness or wasting, is typical of this condition. Additionally, the patient’s age and gender are also consistent with a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.
The recommended first-line investigation for this condition is to check the blood inflammatory markers, specifically the ESR and CRP. These markers are often elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica and typically return to normal levels following steroid treatment. An antibody screen is not necessary as this condition is not associated with auto-antibodies.
A full-body MRI is not appropriate as it is not a specific test for polymyalgia rheumatica and is typically reserved for more invasive investigations. Ultrasound of the affected joints is also not necessary as there are no structural abnormalities associated with this condition that would be detected by this test. Similarly, X-rays of the shoulders and hips would not aid in the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica as they do not provide visualization of the muscle.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.
As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?Your Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years
Explanation:Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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