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Question 1
Incorrect
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A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.
Your Answer: Switch to montelukast
Correct Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed
Explanation:When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?
Your Answer: Stop ramipril and start amlodipine
Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan
Explanation:When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl has been treated in the hospital for her first acute asthma exacerbation. She was previously only taking salbutamol as needed. After 24 hours, she is stable on inhaled salbutamol six puffs four times a day via a spacer and twice-daily steroid inhaler.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this acute asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Course of oral steroids
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Treatment Approaches for Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children
Acute asthma exacerbation in children requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. Here are some correct and incorrect treatment approaches for this condition:
Course of oral steroids: Giving oral steroids early in the treatment of acute asthma attacks in children is advisable. The initial course length should be tailored to response.
Wean down salbutamol to 2 puffs twice a day before hospital discharge: Weaning down salbutamol to two puffs twice a day before hospital discharge is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.
Addition of salmeterol inhaler: Adding a salmeterol inhaler is incorrect. The initial next step of treatment should be inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) for patients who have had an asthma attack in the last two years.
Continue monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required: Continuing monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.
IV hydrocortisone: Administering IV hydrocortisone is incorrect. It is reserved for the treatment of acute life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The symptoms vary but can include fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Diagnosis is usually confirmed with serology, and treatment typically involves a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin for at least 10-14 days. Penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective as Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks a cell wall. Tetracycline can be used but macrolides are preferred due to a better side-effect profile. Rifampicin is mostly limited to the treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy, while co-trimoxazole is not indicated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. Extrapulmonary involvement is possible and may suggest the diagnosis in a patient presenting with pneumonia. A chest radiograph is non-specific and typically shows a reticulonodular or patchy consolidation pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
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A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.
Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:
Your Answer: Cannot complete full sentences
Explanation:Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations
Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive in his home. His medical records show that he had recently been prescribed doxycycline for an unknown reason. Upon assessment, he is breathing rapidly with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min and has bibasal crackles. His heart rate is 96 beats/min and his blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. His blood glucose is 4.1mmol/L, his temperature 38.9ºC and his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 9 (E3M4V2). He is given a fluid bolus and an arterial blood gas (ABG) on 4L/min of oxygen is taken, revealing an abnormal pH. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal pH?
Your Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Acidosis and Anion Gap
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid or when the kidneys are not able to remove enough acid from the body. It is commonly classified according to the anion gap, which can be calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate levels from the sum of sodium and potassium levels. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question supplies the chloride level, it may be a clue that the anion gap should be calculated.
There are two types of metabolic acidosis based on anion gap levels. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Metabolic acidosis secondary to high lactate levels may be subdivided into two types: lactic acidosis type A and lactic acidosis type B. Lactic acidosis type A is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, while lactic acidosis type B is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types of metabolic acidosis and anion gap levels can help in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?
Your Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal
Explanation:Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.
Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.
On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry cough and chest tightness. She was diagnosed with asthma 8-months ago and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, she has noticed an increase in shortness of breath over the past month and has been using her inhaler up to 12 times per day.
During the examination, her vital signs are normal. Her peak expiratory flow rate is 290L/min (best 400 L/min).
What is the next course of action in managing this patient's asthma symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:For an adult with asthma that is not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist, the appropriate next step is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines. The addition of a combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist is not recommended until symptoms cannot be controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Similarly, a leukotriene receptor antagonist or long-acting beta-agonist should not be introduced until symptoms are not controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with terminal lung cancer is evaluated by the palliative care team to determine his analgesic requirements. He is currently on a regimen of 30 mg slow-release morphine twice daily, which effectively manages his pain. However, he is experiencing difficulty swallowing both tablet and liquid forms of the medication. The palliative team suggests transitioning him to subcutaneous morphine. What is the appropriate daily dosage for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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