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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer: Daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis presents with a 5 day history of worsening symptoms. He has been having six episodes of uncomfortable bloody stools per day which is an increase compared to his regular bowel habits. Observations in clinic are stable but he is concerned that oral mesalazine is not controlling his disease.
What would be an appropriate medication to add in order to gain better control of his symptoms?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In this case, the patient is experiencing 5 bloody stools per day and is already taking mesalazine. Therefore, oral steroids are recommended for flare-ups, but they are not used for maintaining remission.
Anti-motility drugs like loperamide should not be used as they may increase the risk of toxic megacolon. Metronidazole is not necessary as there is no indication of an infection.
Intravenous hydrocortisone is not needed as the patient’s condition is stable and hospitalization is not required at this time. Severe exacerbation is typically defined as passing more than 6-8 episodes of bloody stools per day.
Although it is important to manage the patient’s discomfort, oral NSAIDs should be avoided as they can worsen colitis symptoms. Paracetamol is the preferred first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.Your Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Explanation:Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.
The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.
In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.
After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine
Explanation:Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is being investigated for jaundice. She first noticed this symptom 2 months ago, but for 4 months previously, had been experiencing generalised pruritus. The results of liver function tests are as follows:
Investigations:
Investigations Results Normal value
Serum bilirubin 325 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Aspartate aminotransaminase 55 U/l 15–42 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase 436 U/l 80–150 U/l
Y-glutamyltransferase 82 U/l 11–51 U/
Albumin 36 g/l 30-50 g/l
Total protein 82 g/l 60-80 g/l
Select from the list the single MOST LIKELY diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase Concentration
The elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration in a patient suggests cholestatic jaundice. However, the underlying cause of this condition may vary. Alcoholic cirrhosis is a common cause, but it is unlikely in this case due to the only slightly elevated γ-glutamyltransferase. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare tumor that can cause obstructive cholestasis. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is another possible cause, which often presents with weight loss. Autoimmune liver disease is also a possibility, indicated by a high globulin concentration. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a potential diagnosis, but it is more common in men and often associated with inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, primary biliary cholangitis is more common in women. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and medication review. His history includes congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis and dementia. He is allergic to penicillin. He was admitted to the hospital one month ago suffering from acute exacerbation of congestive cardiac failure. During his admission, his medications were adjusted.
Two weeks following discharge, he attended an out-of-hours clinic and was treated for a sore throat. He says he has been well overall since then other than having pains in his knees, which he has been treating with over-the-counter painkillers. The treating doctor decides to take some routine bloods.
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 54 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 43 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 323 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 299 IU/l 7–33 IU/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused the abnormalities in this patient’s liver function tests?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abnormal Liver Function Tests
Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication use. In this case, the patient displays a cholestatic picture with a rise in alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels exceeding the rise in alanine aminotransferase levels. Here is a differential diagnosis of potential causes:
Erythromycin: This medication can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity, which may have been used to treat the patient’s sore throat.
Digoxin: While digoxin is a potentially toxic drug, it doesn’t typically cause hepatotoxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity may include arrhythmias, gastrointestinal disturbance, confusion, or yellow vision.
Methotrexate: Hepatotoxicity is a well-known side effect of methotrexate use, but it would be expected to see higher ALT levels in this case.
Paracetamol: Overdosing on paracetamol can cause hepatotoxicity, but it would typically present as hepatocellular damage with a predominant rise in transaminases.
Rosuvastatin: Statins may cause abnormalities in liver function tests, but cholestatic hepatotoxicity is rare and would not typically present with a disproportionate rise in transaminases.
In conclusion, the patient’s abnormal liver function tests may be attributed to erythromycin use, but further investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:
- eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
- HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
- Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results
Explanation:It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.
Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.
Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).
According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady came in with complaints of heartburn. She has a history of osteoporosis and has been on alendronate for several years.
What is the probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Side Effects of Oral Bisphosphonates
Oral bisphosphonates can cause serious side effects in some patients, including esophagitis, gastritis, and diarrhea. However, when used as directed, these complications are rare. Patients with pre-existing esophageal conditions, such as achalasia, stricture, Barrett’s esophagus, severe reflux, and scleroderma, should avoid taking oral bisphosphonates.
Interestingly, if patients experience gastrointestinal side effects while taking bisphosphonates, treatment with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) is often ineffective. The only way to alleviate these symptoms is by discontinuing the use of bisphosphonates. It is important for patients to discuss any concerns or pre-existing conditions with their healthcare provider before starting treatment with oral bisphosphonates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man underwent a right hemicolectomy for a Dukes' B colorectal carcinoma. What is the most suitable tumour marker to be monitored during his regular check-ups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CEA
Explanation:Tumor Markers: Identifying Cancer through Blood Tests
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be detected in blood, urine, or tissue samples and can help in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumor markers and their significance:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion. It is usually present only at very low levels in the blood of healthy adults but is raised in some cancers, including colorectal, stomach, pancreatic, lung, breast, and medullary thyroid cancers. While it lacks specificity and sensitivity to establish a diagnosis of colorectal cancer, it is used to help identify recurrences after surgical resection.
CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen 19-9) is secreted by some pancreatic tumors and is also elevated in gastric and hepato-biliary cancer. Its levels should fall when the tumor is treated, and rise again if the disease recurs.
PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a marker for prostate cancer, while urinary 5HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is elevated in carcinoid tumors and AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) is elevated in non-seminomatous germ cell tumors and hepatocellular cancer.
In conclusion, tumor markers play a crucial role in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these markers do not always indicate the presence of cancer and further testing is often required for confirmation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman who is currently 4 weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma has abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Radiation Enteritis: Understanding the Inflammation of the Bowel
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs as a result of radiation-induced inflammation of the bowel. The severity of the condition is dependent on the volume of bowel that has been irradiated and the radiation dose. During therapy, patients may experience acute radiation enteritis, which manifests as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, with symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.
In virtually all patients undergoing radiation therapy, acute radiation-induced injury to the GI mucosa occurs when the bowel is irradiated. Delayed effects may occur after three months or more, and they are due to mucosal atrophy, vascular sclerosis, and intestinal wall fibrosis. These effects can lead to malabsorption or dysmotility, causing further complications.
It is important to note that the clinical picture of radiation enteritis is unlikely to be due to a surgical complication, given the time frame. Additionally, it is less suggestive of bowel obstruction or perforation. Local malignant infiltration into the bowel is most likely to present with obstruction. Understanding the symptoms and causes of radiation enteritis can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with cramping abdominal pain and profuse diarrhoea, which is sometimes bloody. He thinks it may be related to some chicken he ate 3 days ago before returning from a holiday in South East Asia. He has no other comorbidities and works in the local pub.
On examination, his temperature is 38.0 °C. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His observations are normal. A stool sample is positive for campylobacter.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe an antibiotic
Explanation:Managing Campylobacter Infection: Antibiotics, Hydration, and Work Restrictions
Campylobacter is a common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease, often contracted through undercooked meat, contaminated water, or contact with infected animals. When a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal pain, a stool culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic treatment is recommended for patients with positive stool cultures and severe symptoms. Erythromycin is the first-line choice, with alternatives including azithromycin, clarithromycin, and ciprofloxacin.
Patients should not return to work for at least 48 hours after the last episode of diarrhea or vomiting, and longer if they work with food or in other specific settings. Hospital admission is only necessary for severe symptoms or systemic illness. Antimotility drugs are not recommended for patients with possible Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli infection, but may be useful for travelers’ diarrhea. Oral rehydration salts are important for managing symptoms and preventing dehydration. With appropriate treatment and management, most cases of Campylobacter infection will resolve within a week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, worried about potential hepatitis C infection. He has received multiple tattoos, all of which were done in the United Kingdom (UK). He has previously been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Upon examination, there are no indications of liver disease. What is the most suitable management advice to give this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be tested for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV)
Explanation:Screening and Testing for Hepatitis C Infection
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. It is important to screen and test for hepatitis C in certain individuals, particularly those with unexplained abnormal liver function tests or who have undergone procedures with unsterilized equipment.
Testing for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) serology is recommended for those suspected of having HCV infection, although false negatives can occur in the acute stage of infection. A liver ultrasound (US) may be used to look for evidence of cirrhosis, but is not a diagnostic tool for hepatitis C.
Screening for hepatitis C is necessary for those who have undergone tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing, or acupuncture with unsterile equipment, as these procedures can put a person at risk of acquiring the infection.
Testing for HCV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is necessary to confirm ongoing hepatitis C infection in those with positive serology. Chronic hepatitis C is considered in those in whom HCV RNA persists, which occurs in approximately 80% of cases. Normal liver function tests do not exclude hepatitis C infection, and deranged LFTs should be a reason to consider screening for the virus.
In summary, screening and testing for hepatitis C is important for those at risk of infection or with unexplained abnormal liver function tests. Testing for HCV DNA is necessary to confirm ongoing infection, and normal LFTs do not exclude the possibility of hepatitis C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a deterioration in his long-standing knee pain. His knee examination is normal but he is noted to have a body mass index of 39 kg/m2 (morbidly obese). He states that he has a sedentary job, but considers himself quite active, as he is a keen gardener and has an acre of land which he maintains at home. He has gained a lot of weight since quitting smoking in his early twenties. He mentions that everyone in his family is overweight.
What is the single most important causative factor in the development of obesity in the majority of patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Energy intake in excess of expenditure
Explanation:Understanding the Complex Causes of Obesity
Obesity is a complex condition that cannot be solely attributed to excessive food intake and lack of physical activity. While these factors do play a role, other factors such as genetic predisposition, insulin resistance, and intrauterine malnutrition also contribute to the development of obesity. A diet high in sugar and fat, excess alcohol consumption, and a sedentary lifestyle are all contributing factors. However, genetic factors, underlying medical conditions, sleep deprivation, and socioeconomic status also impact weight gain. It is recommended to maintain an active lifestyle by incorporating 150 minutes of moderate or 75 minutes of intense exercise per week. While smoking may suppress appetite, the impact of smoking cessation on weight gain is smaller than the balance of energy in versus out. While obese parents are more likely to have obese offspring, the causes of obesity are multifactorial and not solely attributed to genetics. Insulin resistance is more likely to be a consequence of obesity rather than a cause. Low birth weight and intrauterine growth restriction have also been associated with the development of obesity in later life. Overall, understanding the complex causes of obesity is crucial in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics
Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.
Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of looser stools than usual. She reports having three bowel movements per day for the past three months, whereas previously she had only one per day. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and there are no palpable masses or tenderness. A digital rectal examination is unremarkable. The patient reports that she recently underwent bowel screening tests, which came back negative. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer routinely to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Persistent Change in Bowel Habit
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to rely on negative screening results and dismiss their symptoms. In the case of a 72-year-old man with a persistent change in bowel habit towards looser stools, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.
It is important to note that relying solely on recent negative bowel screening results can be inadequate and should not falsely reassure patients. Therefore, healthcare providers should prioritize investigating any persistent changes in bowel habits to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, full dose proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPIs should be given for 1 month.
For endoscopically negative reflux disease, full dose PPIs should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.
Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. It is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.
He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.
On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach
Explanation:Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy
The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.
However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with rectal symptoms and bloody diarrhoea. Upon examination, he appears comfortable and well hydrated. His vital signs include a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, a temperature of 37.5ºC, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa, but no palpable masses or rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals tenderness and blood in the rectum. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's mild/moderate proctitis flare?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:When experiencing a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the initial treatment option is the use of topical (rectal) aminosalicylates. It is recommended to start with local treatment for rectal symptoms. Topical aminosalicylates are more effective than steroids, but a combination of both can be used if monotherapy is not effective. If the disease is diffuse or if symptoms do not respond to topical treatments, oral aminosalicylates can be used. In cases of severe disease, oral steroids can be considered.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis
Explanation:Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks
Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:
Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.
Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.
Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.
Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.
Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing
Explanation:Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with an increase in stool frequency and passing around 4 bloody stools per day. Previous colonoscopies have shown rectal disease. On examination, her heart rate is 62 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 36.8ºC. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended initial treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This patient is experiencing a moderate flare with four bloody stools per day and no systemic symptoms, indicating the use of topical aminosalicylates.
While oral aminosalicylates, topical corticosteroids, and corticosteroids are also options for managing mild to moderate ulcerative colitis flares, rectal aminosalicylates are the first-line treatment.
Severe flares of ulcerative colitis may require hospitalization for intravenous steroids, but this is not necessary for this patient who is passing less than six bloody stools per day and has no systemic symptoms.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
ALP 84 U/L
ALT 23 U/L
Albumin 41 g/L
His medical history reveals recent complaints of coryzal symptoms and a non-productive cough. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure
Explanation:Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia
The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.
To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.
Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of persistent symptoms despite adhering to a gluten-free diet. He is experiencing frequent episodes of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He was diagnosed with coeliac disease a few years ago and has been managing it well otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intestinal lymphoma
Explanation:Intestinal lymphoma is a rare but increased risk for individuals with coeliac disease, particularly those with refractory coeliac disease. Symptoms of enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma include persistent diarrhoea, stomach pain, and unexplained weight loss. Adhering to a gluten-free diet can decrease the risk of developing lymphoma, as well as other potential complications such as carcinoma of the small bowel or oesophagus. Intestinal lymphangiectasia, bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine, Crohn’s disease, and Giardia intestinalis infection are other possible causes of chronic diarrhoea and weight loss, but are less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with coeliac disease.
Which of the following foods should she avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barley
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Grains for a Gluten-Free Diet
Following a gluten-free diet can be challenging, especially when it comes to grains. If you have celiac disease or gluten intolerance, it’s important to avoid wheat, rye, and barley as they contain gluten. However, there are still plenty of safe grains to choose from. Maize, rice, millet, and potatoes are all gluten-free and can be enjoyed without worry. By making simple substitutions and being mindful of ingredients, you can still enjoy a varied and delicious diet while avoiding gluten.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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