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Question 1
Incorrect
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A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic heart disease. His father was a non-smoker and passed away due to a myocardial infarction at the age of 44 years. His paternal grandfather and a paternal uncle both suffered from myocardial infarcts in their forties.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Inherited Cardiovascular Conditions: Understanding the Genetics Behind Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, Haemochromatosis, Factor V Leiden Mutation, Homocystinuria, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Inherited cardiovascular conditions can significantly increase the risk of heart disease and other related health issues. Here are some key genetic factors to consider:
Familial hypercholesterolaemia affects approximately 1 in 500 people and is linked to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. If a first-degree relative has died before the age of 60, measuring serum cholesterol is recommended.
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that leads to excess iron accumulation in the liver and other tissues. While it is not associated with increased ischaemic heart disease, it may cause cardiomyopathy.
Factor V Leiden mutation is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and affects clotting factor V. People with this mutation have an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal-recessive inborn error of methionine metabolism. While elevated plasma homocysteine levels are associated with ischaemic heart disease, it is less likely to be responsible for a strong family history compared to familial hypercholesterolaemia. Individuals with homocystinuria may have a marfanoid habitus and downward lens dislocation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and may cause sudden death at a young age due to arrhythmia or left ventricular outlet obstruction. While heart muscle is abnormal, it is not due to ischaemia. It is important to note that myocardial infarctions are not typically associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her lower limbs. Upon examination, both of her knees are warm and swollen, with tenderness upon palpation of the joint. The joints exhibit crepitus and painful active and passive movement, but there is no ligamental instability. Which of the following findings would indicate an inflammatory cause of joint pain, rather than osteoarthritis, in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Swelling and warmth
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Inflammatory Arthritis and Osteoarthritis: Symptoms and Signs
When it comes to joint pain, it can be difficult to determine whether it is caused by inflammatory arthritis or osteoarthritis. However, there are certain symptoms and signs that can help distinguish between the two.
Swelling and warmth are more likely to be associated with inflammatory arthritis, as it is characterized by the presence of synovial fluid and inflammation. On the other hand, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with bony joint enlargement and tenderness, rather than swelling and warmth.
Crepitus, or joint cracking and popping, can occur in both types of arthritis, but is more common in osteoarthritis due to joint-space narrowing. Joint instability can also occur in all types of arthritis, but is most commonly caused by injury or trauma that has damaged ligaments.
Painful range of motion is another symptom that can occur in both inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis. However, it can be managed with analgesia and physiotherapy.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and signs of inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You receive a gift basket in the post from a patient that you have been treating for the past 5 years. You know it is worth £15. This is the first time the patient or their family has given you a gift.
What would be the next most appropriate step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gift but advise her to avoid personal gifts in the future
Explanation:Accepting Gifts as a GP: Guidelines and Grey Areas
Accepting gifts from patients or their relatives can be a tricky area for GPs. While there are clear guidelines, there are also grey areas that require careful consideration. Legally, any gift with a value of £100 or more must be registered. Gifts to organizations are generally less contentious than gifts to individuals. Accepting gifts worth less than £50 is usually acceptable, but it’s important to maintain a balance between not offending the patient and avoiding any gift that could affect professional judgment.
NHS England provides practical principles and rules for managing conflicts of interest in the NHS, while the GMC states that doctors must not accept any gift or hospitality that could affect the way they prescribe, treat, or refer patients. If the answer is not clear, it’s advisable to contact a trade union or indemnity provider. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it’s worth asking about this when joining a new practice.
In summary, accepting gifts as a GP requires careful consideration and adherence to guidelines. While there are grey areas, it’s important to maintain professionalism and avoid any gifts that could compromise patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent behavior changes. She notes that he used to be reserved, but in the past year, he has become much louder and seeks attention at social events. Additionally, he makes inappropriate comments and lacks empathy towards her. She also mentions that he has been consuming a lot of fatty and carbohydrate-rich foods, despite being health-conscious previously. The patient's neurological exam is normal, and his wife recalls that his mother passed away at 63 due to a neurological condition, but she cannot recall the name of it. What condition is likely affecting this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:The individual in question is exhibiting a slow progression of personality changes and social conduct issues at a younger age, while still maintaining their memory and visuospatial abilities. Additionally, their mother passed away at 65 years old due to a comparable neurological condition. This suggests that the individual is likely suffering from Frontotemporal lobar degeneration, specifically Pick’s disease. Other forms of dementia have distinct presentations and can be found in the PassMedicine textbook. Bipolar disorder is an unlikely diagnosis due to its sudden onset and the strong familial connection to Pick’s disease.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.
FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.
CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.
Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection
Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.
If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What interventions can be used to identify asthma when there is diagnostic uncertainty or coexistence of COPD and asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled beclomethasone (BDP) 200 mcg twice daily for 10 days
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Asthma in Adults
In adults, the diagnosis of asthma can be challenging, especially when there is diagnostic uncertainty or when both asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are present. The British Thoracic Society recommends a 6-8 week treatment trial of inhaled beclomethasone (or equivalent) twice daily for patients with significant airflow obstruction. However, in patients with suspected inhaled corticosteroid resistance, a two-week treatment trial of oral prednisolone 30 mg daily is preferred.
To help identify asthma, clinicians should assess FEV1 (or PEF) and/or symptoms before and after 400mcg inhaled salbutamol. A >400ml improvement in FEV1 to either b2 agonists or corticosteroid treatment strongly suggests underlying asthma. Serial peak flow measurements showing 20% or greater diurnal or day-to-day variability can also be used to help diagnose asthma.
NICE NG115 further clarifies that a large response to bronchodilators or oral prednisolone (over 400 ml) can also help identify asthma. Clinically significant COPD is not present if the FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio return to normal with drug therapy. In cases of diagnostic uncertainty, a combination of these findings can be used to help diagnose asthma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy comes to your morning clinic with his father. His father reports that he has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with a fever, sore throat and eating less than usual. This morning he developed a rash. His father has been encouraging fluids and has given paracetamol. He has no significant medical history and is up to date with his immunisations.
On examination, he is alert and talkative but looks slightly flushed. His temperature is 37.5 ºC, heart rate 95 bpm, respiratory rate 22/min, capillary refill time 1 second. He has moist mucous membranes, his tonsils are not inflamed, he has a strawberry tongue. There is a rough, pinpoint, erythematous blanching rash on his torso.
You prescribe a 10-day course of penicillin V and give adequate safety netting. His father asks if he can return to school as he feels he is well enough.
When can he go back to school?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hours after starting antibiotics
Explanation:After beginning a course of antibiotics, a child with scarlet fever is able to return to school after 24 hours. This particular girl displayed the typical symptoms and signs of scarlet fever, which is a notifiable disease that is treated with 10 days of penicillin V (or azithromycin for those with a genuine penicillin allergy, taken once a day for 5 days). Based on the clinical and immunisation history, it was less probable that the child had measles or rubella, both of which allow for a return to school 4 days after the rash appears. Children with whooping cough can also return to school under certain circumstances.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety
Explanation:Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home
Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.
The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.
The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are examining the blood results of a 31-year-old woman who visited you last week complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, loose stools, mouth ulcers, and episcleritis. You suspected that she might have inflammatory bowel disease due to her positive family history. Her blood tests reveal a microcytic anaemia and an elevated CRP level.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: About two-thirds of people with inflammatory bowel disease have anaemia at diagnosis
Explanation:Inflammatory bowel disease can have an impact on the fertility of both men and women. For instance, Crohn’s disease can lower fertility rates due to the presence of active disease. Additionally, women who have undergone abdominal surgery or experienced abdominal sepsis are at a higher risk of developing adhesions that can negatively affect the function of their fallopian tubes.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings
A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea, and headache. She experiences these symptoms two to three times a month, and the pain is so severe that she has to lie down for hours. Paracetamol and ibuprofen do not provide relief. Upon examination, her neurological features and blood pressure are normal. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence treatment with sumatriptan
Explanation:Differentiating Treatment Options for Headaches: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
When it comes to treating headaches, it’s important to accurately diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide the most effective treatment. Here are some common scenarios and the appropriate course of action:
1. Commence treatment with sumatriptan: This is the recommended course of action for patients experiencing migraines, particularly if first-line treatments like paracetamol or NSAIDs have been ineffective. Prophylactic agents like propranolol may also be necessary for frequent migraines.
2. Commence treatment with high-dose steroids: This is the appropriate treatment for patients with giant-cell arteritis, which typically presents with a temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. GCA is rare in patients under 60.
3. Commence treatment with sodium valproate: This medication is not recommended for migraine prophylaxis, and should be avoided in women of childbearing age due to its teratogenicity. First-line agents for migraine prophylaxis include propranolol, topiramate, and amitriptyline.
4. Refer for a computed tomography (CT) head and lumbar puncture scan: This is indicated for patients suspected of having a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which typically presents with a sudden-onset, occipital, thunderclap headache.
5. Refer for an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan: This is necessary when there is progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function, which could indicate an underlying tumor. This is not indicated in patients with typical migraine symptoms.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients with headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics
Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:
Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.
Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.
Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.
Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.
Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.
In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.
A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.
Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.
Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.
Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.
In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You stop the MAOI (which is of the non reversible kind) and wish to prescribe an SSRI.
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Switching between MAOIs and SSRIs
When switching from an MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. This is because MAOIs can inactivate the enzymes that break down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5HT. It can take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and during this time there is a risk of severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. Therefore, it is crucial to allow enough time for the body to adjust before switching between these types of antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
Select the single correct statement about her management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with concerns about his hearing. He has a history of recurrent Ménière disease which has resulted in significant hearing loss. He struggles to hear his coworkers at work and his partner has noticed that he needs to turn the volume up high on the television. He has not considered hearing aids due to negative stories he has heard about them.
Upon reviewing his recent audiogram, it shows an 80 dB hearing loss at the 1,000 Hz and 2,000 Hz frequencies. The patient is interested in being referred for a cochlear implant.
What is the recommended management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her for hearing aids
Explanation:Individuals with severe to profound hearing loss, such as this woman, may benefit from a cochlear implant. It is not necessary for her to wait until her hearing worsens before seeking treatment. Ménière disease-related hearing loss, which is linked to inner ear issues and balance symptoms, can also be improved with a cochlear implant. While cochlear implants are available through the NHS, patients are typically required to have attempted hearing aids before being considered for the procedure.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date
Explanation:Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations
Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.
To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.
In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other children. She comes to clinic concerned the child may have autism.
Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder in a child of this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of gestures (eg pointing, waving goodbye)
Explanation:Identifying Early Signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism spectrum disorder is a complex developmental condition that affects social interactions and restricts interests. Early identification is crucial for effective intervention. Here are some important indicators that should lead to further evaluation in a young child:
– Lack of gestures (e.g. pointing, waving goodbye) by 12 months
– No use of single words by 16 months
– No use of two-word phrases by 24 months
– Regression of language or social skills at any time
– Reduced or missing ‘make-believe’ playIt’s important to note that not all children with autism will display these signs, and some may develop typically before showing symptoms. However, if you have concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to seek professional advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty
Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:
1. Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.3. Down’s Syndrome
Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.4. Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.5. Klinefelter Syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis.
It has been present for over three months and is not responding well to treatment. He has only had very mild episodes in the past.
He has a history of heroin addiction in his twenties but has been off drugs for more than five years.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions and HIV
Skin conditions are a common occurrence in individuals with HIV, affecting over 90% of those infected. These conditions can either exacerbate pre-existing conditions or lead to new skin problems. One such condition is seborrhoeic dermatitis, which can be particularly severe or difficult to treat in those with HIV. It is important for individuals with HIV to be aware of the potential for skin conditions and to seek medical attention if any issues arise. Proper management and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child comes to the clinic after visiting a petting zoo about 2 weeks ago. The child complains of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a low-grade fever. The mother reports that the child is still able to eat and drink normally and is urinating normally. Upon examination, the child appears pale, and the abdomen is slightly tender but soft. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Differentials for Gastrointestinal Illness
Differentials for a gastrointestinal illness include Cryptosporidium, Escherichia coli O157, and S. aureus. S. aureus food poisoning, which is usually caused by dairy products, results in vomiting shortly after ingestion. On the other hand, Escherichia coli O157 usually presents with non-bloody diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting three to four days after exposure. The diarrhea may become bloody after two to three days, and only a small percentage of patients develop haemolytic uraemic syndrome. In contrast, Cryptosporidium results in a chronic watery diarrheal illness that begins around ten days after exposure.
By understanding the different symptoms and timelines associated with these illnesses, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with gastrointestinal illnesses. It is important to note that proper hygiene and food safety practices can help prevent the spread of these illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A hierarchy of quality in evidence-based medicine exists, with study types ranked according to the strength of their data. The study types are listed below.
Case report (CR)
Randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial (RCT)
Cohort study (CS)
Systematic review (SR)
Which of the following options correctly ranks these study types, with the most robust first and the least robust last?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MA, RCT, CC, CR
Explanation:The most reliable type of study is a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, as it minimises bias. A meta-analysis combines results from multiple randomised-controlled trials. Case reports are the least reliable as they do not test a hypothesis and may describe chance observations. Case-control studies match cases to controls, but may have some inclusion and recall bias. Cohort studies collect longitudinal data for later analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and the following results: ANA positive, double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) positive, rheumatoid factor positive and reduced C3, C4 complement levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Screening Tests
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs in the body. It is more common in women, especially those aged between 15 and 35. SLE is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and autoantibodies, which can be detected through screening tests such as ESR, ANA, and anti-dsDNA antibodies. However, the diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of 11 criteria specified by the American College of Rheumatology, including rash, joint swelling, ANA positivity, and autoantibodies. The course of SLE is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and screening tests for SLE is crucial for early detection and management of this complex disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently on MST 60 mg bd to manage his pain. Due to his inability to take oral medications, it has been decided to initiate a syringe driver. What would be the appropriate dosage of diamorphine to prescribe for the syringe driver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40 mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is referred with a three month history of progressive disorientation and falls.
Four weeks beforehand, he locked his wife out of their house, claiming that she was trying to steal his clothes. He had also telephoned the police in the middle of night, claiming that he could see men hiding under his bed.
On examination, his face is expressionless, his speech is quiet and monotonic. There are no cranial nerve palsies, otherwise. Increased tone is present in all four limbs, with a slow festinant gait. Reflexes, power and sensation are all normal.
Halfway through your examination he tells you that he is leaving the room, because of the lobsters coming through the window. Unfortunately, therefore, formal cognitive testing and basic investigations cannot be performed.
Based on this evidence, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Diagnosis of Parkinsonism with Dementia, Paranoia, and Visual Hallucinations
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of parkinsonism, including bradykinesia and rigidity. However, the presence of florid visual hallucinations and paranoid ideation make Parkinson’s disease unlikely. Additionally, the patient’s normal eye movements and postural blood pressure suggest a parkinsonism plus syndrome is not the cause, while the absence of incontinence and gait abnormalities make normal pressure hydrocephalus less probable. The combination of parkinsonism with dementia, paranoia, and visual hallucinations is commonly seen in dementia with Lewy bodies. A diagnosis of Lewy body dementia should be considered in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has lung cancer. She saw her oncologist one month ago who told her that the prognosis was poor and that she was unlikely to survive for more than a year.
Now she comes to see you with pains in her back. Her corrected calcium is 3.5 mmol/l.
The normal calcium range is around 2.2 to 2.6 millimoles per litre (mmol/L).
What should you do first?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admission to treat the hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Managing Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care
You should urgently arrange intravenous treatment for hypercalcaemia in palliative care patients, especially when the calcium level is very high. This may indicate bone metastases or a non-metastatic effect of malignancy. As a GP, the most appropriate decision would be to admit the patient for immediate treatment.
The RCGP emphasizes that an AKT question may have several plausible answers, but the candidate’s ability to select the most appropriate one is crucial. In this case, admitting the patient for treatment is the best course of action.
Once admitted, the patient may receive intravenous 0.9% saline to increase circulating volume. Adding a loop diuretic may also help by inhibiting the tubular reabsorption of calcium. Additionally, a bisphosphonate may reduce bone turnover.
This question is part of the MRCGP examination curriculum, which requires candidates to have knowledge of various palliative care emergencies and their appropriate management. These emergencies include major haemorrhage, hypercalcaemia, superior vena caval obstruction, spinal cord compression, bone fractures, anxiety/panic, and the use of emergency drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient with Addisons disease phones the surgery for advice.
He feels mildly unwell with a sore throat and a temperature of 37.8 degrees. There is no vomiting, no headache and no diarrhoea. He says that his children and wife have recently been unwell with a similar illness, thought to be viral in origin and that they have since fully recovered.
He asks for advice about his medication.
What would you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should take double the usual dose of both fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone
Explanation:Managing Addison’s Disease: The Importance of Sick Day Rules
Managing Addison’s disease can be challenging, especially for general practitioners who may have limited exposure to its management. However, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to prevent catastrophic consequences of mismanagement in primary care. The Addisons Clinical Advisory Panel has produced an excellent guide for GPs, which outlines the sick day rules that patients must follow.
The sick day rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea often accompanied by a headache, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. In case of vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and call a doctor, stating Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.
It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and prevent any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit and well with no relevant past medical history. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for 10 years. She takes no other medication, has no relevant family history. Her blood pressure (BP) and BMI are normal. She takes the COCP as contraception as she is still having regular periods.
Which statement below is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be advised to stop taking the COCP for contraception, and prescribe an alternative, safer method
Explanation:For women over 40, combined hormonal contraception (COCP) can be beneficial in reducing menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviating menopausal symptoms. However, it is important to consider certain factors when prescribing COCP to women over 40. The UKMEC criteria for women over 40 is 2, while for women from menarche until 40, it is 1. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health recommends the use of COCP until age 50, provided there are no other contraindications. However, women over 50 should be advised to switch to a safer alternative method of contraception, as the risks associated with COCP use outweigh the benefits. Women who smoke should stop using COCP at 35, as smoking increases the risk of mortality. While COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, there is a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, which diminishes after 10 years of cessation. Women using COCP for non-contraceptive benefits after the age of 50 should be considered on an individual basis using clinical judgement and informed choice.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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