00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and undergoing a cardiotocography (CTG) review. Her waters broke 10 hours ago and she has been in labour for 6 hours. This is her first pregnancy and it has been uncomplicated so far. Her Bishop score is 6.

      The CTG findings are as follows:
      - Foetal heart rate 120 bpm (110 - 160)
      - Variability 10 bpm (5 - 25)
      - Decelerations Late, with 50% of contractions absent
      - Contractions 3 per 10 minutes (3 - 4)

      These findings have been consistent for the past 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Perform foetal blood sampling

      Correct Answer: Prepare for category 2 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Non-reassuring CTG findings during labour can indicate maternal or foetal compromise and require prompt action. Examples of abnormal findings include bradycardia, tachycardia, reduced variability, or prolonged deceleration. If these findings persist, the best course of action is to prepare for a category 2 caesarean section, which is for non-life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Augmenting contractions with syntocinon infusion is not recommended, as there is no evidence of its benefit. Increasing the frequency of CTG checks is not the best action, as the definitive action needed is to plan delivery. Tocolysis and a category 3 caesarean section are also not recommended, as they do not resolve the issue quickly enough. Foetal blood sampling is not routinely performed for non-reassuring CTG findings, but may be indicated for abnormal CTG findings to determine the health of the foetus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37 weeks gestation. During examination, the cervix is found to be dilated at 7 cm, the head is in direct Occipito-Anterior position, the foetal station is at -1, and the head is palpable at 2/5 ths per abdomen. The cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 100 beats/min, which persist for 15 minutes. What is the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Caesarian section

      Explanation:

      The cardiotocogram shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, indicating the need for immediate delivery. Instrumental delivery is not possible and oxytocin and vaginal prostaglandin are contraindicated. The safest approach is an emergency caesarian section.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old G2P1 attends the clinic at 37 weeks’ gestation, complaining of ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 attends the clinic at 37 weeks’ gestation, complaining of ongoing nausea and vomiting for most of the pregnancy. Blood tests show abnormal results for sodium, alkaline phosphatase, and creatinine. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Arrange induction of labour

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and follow up in 1 week

      Explanation:

      Management of Abnormal Alkaline Phosphatase in Pregnancy

      Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme produced by the placenta during pregnancy. If a pregnant patient presents with elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, it can be concerning. However, in the absence of other abnormal blood results and symptoms, further work-up is not indicated. The most appropriate management in this situation is to reassure the patient and follow up in one week.

      It is important to note that dehydration and severe electrolyte abnormalities can cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. However, if there is no evidence of these issues, there is no need for admission for intravenous hydration.

      Additionally, an urgent ultrasound of the liver is not necessary if the rest of the liver enzymes are normal. Induction of labor is not indicated in this situation either.

      If the patient has cholestasis of pregnancy, cholestyramine may be used to bind bile acids. However, if the patient has normal bile acids and no evidence of cholestasis, cholestyramine is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old G2P1 woman arrives at the emergency department in the second stage...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 woman arrives at the emergency department in the second stage of labour with the foetal head visible at the vaginal introitus. She has a history of a previous elective lower-segment Caesarean section, but no other significant medical history. Antenatal imaging revealed chorionic villi invasion into the myometrium, but not the perimetrium. Following delivery of the foetus, the patient experiences post-partum haemorrhage. What is the most probable cause of her post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Vasa praevia

      Correct Answer: Placenta increta

      Explanation:

      Placenta increta is a condition where the chorionic villi, which are normally found in the endometrium, invade the myometrium. This can lead to significant bleeding during vaginal delivery. Placenta increta is more serious than placenta accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium but do not invade it, but less severe than placenta percreta, where the chorionic villi invade the perimetrium.

      Understanding Placenta Accreta

      Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.

      There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.

      During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L

      An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.

      After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?

      Your Answer: Add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational diabetes during her current pregnancy after an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She inquires about the potential impact of this diagnosis on future pregnancies.

      What is the recommended method for screening for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies?

      Your Answer: OGTT at 24-28 weeks

      Correct Answer: OGTT immediately after booking, and at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Women with a history of gestational diabetes should be offered an OGTT immediately after booking and at 24-28 weeks to screen for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies. No screening test is not recommended. OGTT at 24-28 weeks is the screening strategy for those with risk factors but no previous history of gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week...

    Incorrect

    • You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week you are based in the early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU). You are assessing a 28-year-old female with a suspected threatened miscarriage. How does this condition typically manifest?

      Your Answer: Painful per-vaginal bleeding and an open cervical os

      Correct Answer: Painless per-vaginal bleeding and a closed cervical os

      Explanation:

      A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed. Miscarriages can be classified as threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, or missed. Mild bleeding and little to no pain are typical symptoms of a threatened miscarriage. In contrast, an inevitable miscarriage is marked by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Inevitable miscarriages will not result in a continued pregnancy and will progress to incomplete or complete miscarriages.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 36 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a grape-sized lump...

    Correct

    • A 36 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a grape-sized lump in her breast that she discovered during a bath a week ago. The lump is firm, painless, and has no skin changes around it. The patient is generally healthy, without fever, and no prior history of breast disease. She recently stopped breastfeeding a month ago. An ultrasound scan reveals a well-defined lesion, and aspiration of the lump produces white fluid. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Galactocele

      Explanation:

      Fibrocystic change, breast cancer, and fat necrosis are unlikely based on the ultrasound results and aspiration findings.

      Understanding Galactocele

      Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and does not cause any local or systemic signs of infection.

      In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and does not require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the Emergency Department with complaints of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her vital signs are stable and she has no fever. An ultrasound reveals that the fetal heart rate is still present and the size of the uterus is as expected. Upon examination, her cervical os is closed. How would you categorize her miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Threatened

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that a significant percentage of women who experience threatened miscarriages will ultimately miscarry. Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy in pregnant patients who present with both pain and bleeding.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (4/10) 40%
Passmed