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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP, advising...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP, advising her to attend the emergency department due to abnormalities found on her blood tests during her annual well woman check-up. She has a medical history of systemic sclerosis and uses topical emollients on her hands. She denies alcohol consumption, is an ex-smoker, and works as a receptionist. Her blood results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 151 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 11.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 164 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 30 ml/min (>90)

      Upon observation, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is high. In the right arm, it is 187/95 mmHg and in the left arm is 191/94 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Systemic sclerosis can lead to renal complications that often manifest as hypertension and AKI. The first-line treatment for this condition is ACE inhibitors, with lisinopril being the appropriate choice. In severe cases of scleroderma renal crisis, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia may also occur. Amlodipine, bendroflumethiazide, and doxazosin are other medications used to manage hypertension.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.

      The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

      The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis seeks advice on starting...

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    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis seeks advice on starting a family with her partner. Her rheumatoid arthritis is currently well-managed with methotrexate and sulphasalazine, and she has not needed to adjust her doses for the past two years. However, she is hesitant to stop taking her medications unless it is necessary, as she experienced several flares when her doses were reduced three years ago. What recommendations would you provide regarding her pregnancy plans?

      Your Answer: Continue sulphasalazine and stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      It is common for rheumatology clinics to encounter female patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are of child-bearing age. In such cases, the priority is to determine the need for treatment while also considering the risks of disease flares and potential harm to the fetus. During pregnancy, most RA patients experience an improvement in their condition, but caution must be exercised with certain medications. Methotrexate, for instance, is highly teratogenic and should be discontinued one to three months before pregnancy. On the other hand, DMARDs like hydroxychloroquine and sulphasalazine are generally considered safe to continue during pregnancy, although the latter should be avoided by male patients attempting to conceive due to the risk of oligospermia. Glucocorticoids can also be used during pregnancy, but only in low doses after 14 weeks, as there is an increased risk of cleft palate and gestational hypertension before this time. In cases where flares occur after discontinuing methotrexate, low doses of prednisolone may be an option.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling down the last...

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    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling down the last two steps of her staircase and fracturing her left forearm. She reports feeling more fatigued than usual over the past few weeks and experiencing body aches and cramps. Her medical history includes stage 1 chronic kidney disease, and she is not currently taking any medications. Laboratory tests reveal abnormal levels of several markers. Based on this information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with osteomalacia, which is characterized by the demineralization of bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness, proximal myopathy, and an increased risk of fractures. Blood tests show low levels of calcium and phosphate, as well as elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), which is consistent with this diagnosis. The patient’s history of lethargy and body aches and cramps is likely due to hypocalcemia.

      Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a disorder that affects bone resorption and results in dense bones that are prone to fractures. While bone pain is a common symptom, laboratory tests for calcium, phosphate, and ALP are typically normal.

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by reduced bone mineral density and is associated with various risk factors, including menopause, certain medications, and endocrine disorders. Unlike osteomalacia, patients with osteoporosis typically have normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP.

      Paget’s disease is a rare condition that is most commonly seen in older men and is characterized by an isolated elevation of ALP levels, with normal levels of calcium and phosphate. It is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms, as she is a young woman.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman with a 3-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with joint...

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    • A 56-year-old woman with a 3-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with joint pain and numbness in her hands. She is currently taking methotrexate 20 mg per week. The pain is worse in the mornings and she experiences intermittent paraesthesia that wakes her up at night. On examination, there is mild swelling and tenderness over the small joints of the hands and wrists, but no neurological deficits are noted. Her laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated white cell count, elevated platelets, and elevated ESR and CRP. What would be the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer: Electromyogram (EMG)/nerve conduction studies

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common condition in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients, characterized by paraesthesia in the hands, especially at night. CTS occurs due to compression of the median nerve at the wrist, often caused by synovial swelling. Treatment options include resting hand splints, local corticosteroid injections, or median nerve release surgery. To confirm the clinical diagnosis before surgery, an electromyogram (EMG)/nerve conduction study is useful.

      X-rays are not helpful in diagnosing CTS or assessing RA disease activity, but they may detect damage resulting from RA. Urgent or routine magnetic resonance (MR) scans of the cervical spine are not indicated for CTS diagnosis, as the median nerve is usually compressed at the wrist. MR imaging of the hands may not show median nerve compression and is an expensive and insensitive method for detecting CTS. However, MR imaging may be helpful in looking for RA disease activity, although ultrasound is a cheaper and faster alternative (although less sensitive).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old Caucasian patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been receiving monthly i.v....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old Caucasian patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been receiving monthly i.v. cyclophosphamide and oral prednisolone for six months, resulting in well-controlled vasculitis. The next step is to start him on azathioprine. All his blood tests, including full blood count, urea electrolytes, creatinine, and liver function tests, are normal. What screening test should be done before initiating azathioprine therapy?

      Your Answer: Blood for thiopurine methyltransferase

      Explanation:

      Importance of Checking TPMT Levels Before Starting Azathioprine

      Prior to initiating treatment with azathioprine, it is crucial to check the patient’s blood for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) levels. Azathioprine is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) in the body, which can either be converted into inactive 6-methyl mercaptopurine or methylated into active compounds by TPMT. In Caucasians, 89% of individuals have normal or high levels of TPMT, while 11% have low levels and 0.3% are deficient in TPMT. Administering azathioprine to those who are TPMT deficiency can lead to severe side effects such as myelosuppression.

      Patients with normal or high levels of TPMT can safely begin treatment with azathioprine. However, those with low levels of TPMT should be closely monitored and given low doses of azathioprine under expert supervision. Therefore, it is essential to check TPMT levels before starting azathioprine to ensure the safety and efficacy of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man has been referred to your clinic by his doctor due...

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    • A 78-year-old man has been referred to your clinic by his doctor due to a complaint of stiffness in his proximal muscles, particularly in the morning, for the past two months. He reports no weakness. What is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic process?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica and its Association with Giant Cell Arteritis

      The patient’s symptoms suggest polymyalgia rheumatica, which is characterized by stiffness in the proximal muscles but not weakness, typically seen in elderly patients. On the other hand, polymyositis is characterized by muscle pain and weakness. While other tests may be relevant in the overall evaluation of the patient, a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) would require immediate treatment with steroids.

      It is important to note that polymyalgia rheumatica is often associated with giant cell arteritis, which can lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, prompt treatment with steroids is crucial in preventing this complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and...

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    • A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and hot joint. The swelling is localized to the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) and is causing him significant discomfort. He reports having experienced this problem before and having it successfully treated, but the medication used caused him to have severe diarrhea.

      Upon examination, the first MTPJ is swollen, red, and extremely tender to the touch. There is limited mobility, and walking causes severe pain.

      The patient's medical history includes chronic kidney disease, gout, osteoarthritis, and angina.

      Blood tests taken upon admission reveal:

      - Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 300* 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 10.4* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine 230 µmol/L (55-120)
      - CRP 32 mg/L (<5)

      Based on the symptoms and medical history, the suspected diagnosis is an acute gout flare. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option for treating gout is a steroid. In this particular case, the most suitable treatment for the patient would be oral prednisolone as he has gout affecting a small joint and has relative contraindications to NSAIDs and colchicine due to asthma, previous intolerance of colchicine, and renal disease. Febuxostat is not a suitable choice as it is a medication used for gout prophylaxis. Another option for treatment would be a steroid injection directly into the affected joint, but not an intramuscular steroid injection.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of right elbow pain...

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    • A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of right elbow pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days and worsens with movement. He reports no stiffness or involvement of other joints. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically healthy, regularly participating in sports.

      During the physical examination, the physician notes tenderness over the right elbow, particularly on the lateral side. There are no skin changes or effusion present.

      Which additional finding on examination would most strongly suggest the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms suggest lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), as they report experiencing pain on the lateral side of the elbow during activities that involve wrist extension. This is a common symptom of this condition, as the lateral epicondyle is where the extensor muscles of the wrist attach. Pain on resisted finger abduction, forearm extension, and forearm flexion would not be indicative of lateral epicondylitis, as these movements involve different muscle groups that are not typically affected by this condition.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.

      Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcers and knee osteoarthritis presents...

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    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcers and knee osteoarthritis presents with worsening left knee pain over the past week. The pain is exacerbated by walking and climbing stairs, and is severely limiting her mobility. She denies any recent knee injury or swelling. Currently, she is taking co-codamol (30/500 mg) up to four times a day, NSAID gel, and fentanyl patches to manage her pain. On examination, she is found to be overweight and there is crepitus in her right knee, but no effusion is present. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injections

      Explanation:

      Managing Flares of Osteoarthritis-Related Knee Pain

      Flares of osteoarthritis (OA) related knee pain are common and can be quite debilitating. While acupuncture and oral corticosteroids are not effective in controlling such pain, there are several options available. Opiates, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)/Coxibs, and intra-articular corticosteroid injections are all viable options for managing OA-related knee pain. However, of these options, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective.

      It is important to note that the need for intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections should be guided by symptoms rather than the presence or absence of joint effusion. This means that the decision to administer such injections should be based on the patient’s level of pain and discomfort rather than any physical signs of inflammation.

      In summary, managing flares of OA-related knee pain requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s individual symptoms and needs. While there are several options available, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective and should be considered when other treatments have failed to provide relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents to Rheumatology clinic with a two-year history of widespread...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to Rheumatology clinic with a two-year history of widespread pain and fatigue. She reports difficulty concentrating at work and feeling unrefreshed after sleep. She denies any skin rashes, hair loss, or weight loss. Her medical history is significant for mild depression, which was treated with cognitive behavioural therapy. She lives with her husband and two children and has ongoing financial concerns. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and rarely drinks alcohol.

      Initial evaluation reveals no evidence of inflammatory arthritis but significant muscular tenderness at multiple sites. Blood tests, including rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody, are negative, and X-rays of the hands and feet are normal.

      At a follow-up visit, fibromyalgia is suspected, and the patient expresses a desire to manage her symptoms with positive lifestyle changes rather than medication. What is the most effective treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aerobic exercise

      Explanation:

      Limited evidence exists for the effectiveness of non-pharmacological therapies for fibromyalgia. Among these therapies, aerobic exercise has the strongest evidence of benefit. A Cochrane review found that regular aerobic exercise improved wellbeing, aerobic capacity, tenderness, and pain compared to no exercise. While strength training has also shown some benefit, the quality of evidence is lower than for aerobic exercise. Passive physical therapies, such as electrotherapy or balneotherapy, have weak evidence to support their effectiveness.

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with newly developed Raynaud's phenomenon and no...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with newly developed Raynaud's phenomenon and no prior medical history. Upon examination, her fingers appear cool and pale, with hardened and thickened skin extending from her hands to mid-forearms. Additionally, small dilated blood vessels are present on her hands and face. Her blood test reveals a positive anti Scl-70 result. What is the leading cause of mortality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of death in systemic sclerosis is respiratory involvement, specifically interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. In this case, the patient’s positive Scl-70 antibody suggests an increased risk for interstitial lung disease. While cardiac arrhythmias can occur in systemic sclerosis, they are not a significant cause of mortality. While primary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis can occur in this condition, they are relatively rare complications and not associated with the same mortality as interstitial lung disease. Although patients with systemic sclerosis are at higher risk of infectious complications, interstitial lung disease remains the most common cause of mortality in this condition.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.

      The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

      The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 42 year old woman presents to her GP with complaints of dysuria,...

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    • A 42 year old woman presents to her GP with complaints of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain for the past three days. She denies any signs of systemic sepsis. On examination, she has mild suprapubic pain but is otherwise normal. A urine dip test shows positive nitrites, leukocytes, blood, and protein, indicating a urinary tract infection. The sample is sent for culture. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate, folic acid, ibuprofen, and omeprazole. Which antibiotic should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Severe or fatal pancytopenia and bone marrow suppression may occur when methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim are used concurrently.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old female patient presents to the medical ward with a macular rash...

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    • A 29-year-old female patient presents to the medical ward with a macular rash and arthralgia that have persisted for the past three weeks. Initially, she thought it was a viral infection, but her symptoms did not improve after a week, and she continued to experience fevers of > 39ºC. Her GP referred her to the medical team for further investigations. She denies any early morning stiffness, gastrointestinal upset, dysuria, or visual symptoms and was previously healthy.

      The patient is a non-smoker, occasional drinker, and has traveled to France and Spain in the last year. She has no significant family history and no risk factors for HIV or tuberculosis, except for previous travel to India five years ago. She works as a financial analyst and returned to work after a week of sick leave, but she has not been able to participate in her usual sports activities.

      On examination, she has a widespread macular rash with minimal signs of excoriation. Her oropharynx is erythematous, with no signs of exudate, and no significant lymphadenopathy. Cardiovascular, respiratory, abdominal, and neurological examinations are unremarkable. Joint examination shows no signs of active synovitis, and although there is tenderness in the shoulders and knees, there are no areas of restricted active or passive range of movement.

      Her blood tests show neutrophilia, with a platelet count of 550 * 109/L and a CRP of 81 mg/L. A full autoimmune screen, Lyme serology, HIV, and hepatitis screen are all unremarkable. A CT chest/abdomen/pelvis reveals no significant abnormalities, and an echocardiogram shows no signs of infective endocarditis. Three consecutive blood cultures performed off antibiotics are negative.

      What is the first-line treatment for this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Adult-onset Still’s disease is a diagnosis that requires ruling out malignancy, autoimmune disorders, and infections. The patient in this case has mild disease as there is no organ involvement and daily life is not significantly affected. Therefore, NSAIDs are the first-line treatment. If there is no improvement or limited improvement after 10 days to 2 weeks of regular NSAID therapy, oral steroids may be considered.

      For patients with moderate disease, where there is evidence of organ involvement and/or symptoms are limiting, steroids are the first-line treatment. In cases of severe or life-threatening disease, where there is significant organ dysfunction, IV steroids should be initiated.

      For patients who require ongoing steroid treatment to manage their symptoms or for those in whom steroids are not effective, disease-modifying agents like anakinra or methotrexate should be considered.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon/early evening. Rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) tests are negative, making the diagnosis of Still’s disease in adults challenging. The Yamaguchi criteria is the most widely used criteria, with a sensitivity of 93.5%.

      Management of Still’s disease in adults involves the use of NSAIDs as first-line treatment to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended to trial NSAIDs for at least a week before adding steroids. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered. Overall, the management of Still’s disease in adults requires a multidisciplinary approach and close monitoring to ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has a well-controlled vasculitis. He was...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has a well-controlled vasculitis. He was previously treated with cyclophosphamide and pulse methylprednisolone, and is currently on cyclosporine (100 mg/day) and a reducing course of oral prednisolone (15 mg/day to 7.5 mg/day) for the last two months. Despite starting on amlodipine and doxazosin, he has worsening hypertension. His urine dipstick and renal ultrasound are normal, and he has normal inflammatory markers and FBC over the last few months. His blood tests over the past eight weeks are as follows:

      0 week:
      - BP (mmHg) 140/90
      - Na (mmol/L) 142
      - K (mmol/L) 4.5
      - Urea (µmol/L) 10.2
      - Creat (µmol/L) 110

      2 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 145/95
      - Na (mmol/L) 140
      - K (mmol/L) 4.7
      - Urea (µmol/L) 12.4
      - Creat (µmol/L) 135

      6 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 150/100
      - Na (mmol/L) 141
      - K (mmol/L) 5.0
      - Urea (µmol/L) 12.6
      - Creat (µmol/L) 170

      8 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 160/110
      - Na (mmol/L) 139
      - K (mmol/L) 5.0
      - Urea (µmol/L) 14.2
      - Creat (µmol/L) 190

      What is the most likely cause for the deterioration of his renal function?

      Your Answer: Cyclosporine toxicity

      Explanation:

      Serious Side Effects of Cyclosporine

      Cyclosporine is a medication that can have serious side effects, including hypertension and renal impairment. If a patient experiences difficult-to-control hypertension or an increase in creatinine levels by more than 30% from their baseline, it is recommended to stop the use of cyclosporine. However, in the case of this patient, there is no evidence of active vasculitis, as indicated by normal inflammatory markers and urine dipstick results. It is important to note that Cushing’s syndrome does not lead to renal impairment, and hypertension and renal impairment are not delayed adverse events of cyclophosphamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old male was admitted to the medical ward for the treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male was admitted to the medical ward for the treatment of a CURB = 4 community-acquired pneumonia. He is now awaiting discharge but since his illness, he has not returned to his pre-morbid state. His past medical history includes two previous myocardial infarctions, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, duodenal ulcer and obesity.

      In addition, the physiotherapists report significant left knee pain to be contributing to poor mobility. On questioning, the patient reports that the pain is chronic and has been progressively worsening for about 3 years. His GP had sent him for two X-rays previously that demonstrated cartilage loss and osteophyte formation, with a reduction in joint space.

      On examination, you note significant crepitus in the left knee, with reduced range of movements in flexion and extension. You also note bony outgrowths in the proximal interphalangeal joints of his second and third digits of his left hand. He had successfully lost 7kg in weight and had previously taken 1g paracetamol four times a day regularly but neither measure seemed to help his pain.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Topical diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Despite trying non-pharmacological therapies such as weight loss and taking paracetamol regularly, the patient is still experiencing symptoms of osteoarthritis. However, due to her history of a duodenal ulcer, oral NSAIDs should be avoided, and selective COX-2 inhibitors should be used with caution because of her previous MIs. Opioids are not recommended as a second-line therapy for osteoarthritis, and glucosamine is not recommended for use in the NHS due to limited evidence. As an alternative, topical NSAIDs like diclofenac or topical capsaicin can be used as an adjunct. If topical NSAIDs are not effective or contraindicated, intraarticular steroid injections can be considered as a third-line option. Studies have shown that these injections can significantly improve symptoms in the knee joint, even without an inflammatory element. However, evidence for other joints is weaker.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis (RF positive, anti-CCP positive) presented with multiple...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis (RF positive, anti-CCP positive) presented with multiple well-defined ulcers on her legs. She is currently taking methotrexate 20 mg/week, folic acid 5 mg/day, and sulfasalazine 1 gm/day, and her arthritis is well controlled with no swollen or tender joints. However, her recent blood tests showed leucopenia, and both methotrexate and sulfasalazine were stopped for two weeks. Despite this, repeat blood tests did not show any improvement in her WBC count. Further investigations revealed a negative anti-nuclear antibody and the following results: Hb 129 g/L (115-165), WBC 1.4 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 39% (40-75), Platelet 166 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 26 mm/hr (0-30), and CRP 13 mg/L (<10). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Felty's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neutropenia in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) often experience neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low count of neutrophils in the blood. This can be caused by drug-related factors, which typically improve over time, or by Felty’s syndrome, a condition that involves splenomegaly and pancytopenia, with neutropenia being the predominant symptom. While rheumatoid vasculitis is rare, it can present with a vasculitic rash, neuropathy, and high inflammatory markers. In some cases, RA may coexist with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is known as rhupus. However, if a patient is ANA negative, it is unlikely that they have SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing breathlessness and coughing up small amounts of blood. She also reports frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months, as well as feeling generally lethargic and losing weight. On examination, there are no signs of cyanosis, finger clubbing, pallor, or skin rash. The pulse is 100 beats/min and BP is 135/95 mmHg. Respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, chest expansion is moderate, and inspiratory crackles are heard at the left lung base.

      The following investigations were conducted: Hb 100 g/L (115-165), WCC 19.9 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400), Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110), Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28), Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49), Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22), Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105), Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (5-35). Arterial blood gases on air reveal: pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44), pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6). ECG shows sinus tachycardia and chest x-ray reveals a shadow in the left lower lobe. Urinalysis shows blood +++ and protein ++.

      Which of the following would you expect to be positive in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-proteinase-3 antibodies

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Autoimmune Diseases

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis. This is because 95% of patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. In contrast, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase and are non-specific, being detected in various autoimmune disorders.

      In summary, acid-base disorders and autoimmune diseases is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 65 year old woman presented to her General Practitioner with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old woman presented to her General Practitioner with complaints of bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain and stiffness lasting up to two hours each morning for the past three months. Despite taking simple analgesics, her symptoms were limiting her daily activities. She denied experiencing headaches, visual disturbances, or jaw claudication, but reported intermittent episodes of dry mouth and dry eyes for several years. Her medical history included well-controlled coeliac disease on a gluten-free diet. On examination, mild muscular tenderness was noted across the shoulder and hip girdles, but no other inflamed or tender joints were found. Blood tests revealed an elevated ESR of 65, leading to a diagnosis of PMR and a prescription of 20 mg prednisolone daily. However, after six weeks, her symptoms had not significantly improved, and she was referred to rheumatology clinic. Further investigations, including X-rays of her hands, were conducted, and the results are listed below. What is the correct diagnosis?

      Haemoglobin 110 g / dL
      White cell count 8.9 * 109/l
      Neutrophils 7.8 * 109/l
      Platelets 456 * 109/l
      Urea 6.2 mmol / L
      Creatinine 87 micromol / L
      Sodium 138 mmol / L
      Potassium 4.1 mmol / L
      Ferritin 180 ng / mL
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm / h
      Rheumatoid factor Negative
      Connective tissue ANA Negative
      Anti-CCP antibodies 58 EU (reference < 20)
      Creatinine kinase 89 U / L (reference 5-130)

      X-ray hands: minor degenerative change in multiple interphalangeal joints of both hands; no evidence of erosive arthropathy.

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Before clinically detectable synovitis, rheumatoid arthritis may present with a polymyalgic syndrome. This is suggested in this case by the lack of response to a trial of prednisolone and the presence of positive anti-CCP antibody. Observational studies have shown that polymyalgia rheumatica has a greater clinical and laboratory response to steroids than polymyalgic onset rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP antibodies are strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis but are rarely present in polymyalgia rheumatica. Sjogren’s syndrome and SLE are unlikely as there are no anti-nuclear antibodies present. Polymyositis is excluded as the CK is normal.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man has been experiencing painful swelling in his right knee and...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been experiencing painful swelling in his right knee and difficulty walking for the past three days. He has also had two instances of severe pain and swelling in his right big toe within the last year. A knee aspiration revealed the presence of leukocytes but no organisms on Gram stain, as well as negatively birefringent crystals on polarised light microscopy. Recent blood tests showed normal renal function, but a raised serum urate level of 452 µmol/L (210-415 µmol/L). What is the next step in managing his condition in the long term, once the current episode of acute synovitis has subsided?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Rheumatology guidelines recommend maintaining plasma urate below 300 µmol/L in gout management, with drug therapy (such as allopurinol) indicated in certain cases. Febuxostat is recommended only for patients intolerant of allopurinol. Lifestyle advice is also important. In managing an acute episode of gout, anti-inflammatory medication should be started immediately, affected joints should be rested, and corticosteroids can be used in refractory disease.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal Arteritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arteritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arteritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arteritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bilateral shoulder aches and...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bilateral shoulder aches and pains that have been ongoing for 3 months. He reports stiffness in the mornings that takes up to two hours to resolve after waking. The patient denies any symptoms of headache, jaw claudication, or visual disturbance. He has no symptoms of dry eyes or mouth, no skin or hair changes, no weight loss, and no fevers.

      The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He takes ramipril, simvastatin, and inhaled salbutamol as required. He is an ex-smoker who drinks 25 units of alcohol per week. The patient recently retired after working as a train driver.

      On examination, there are no inflamed joints except for slight tenderness across the shoulder girdle. There is no evidence of scalp tenderness. The cardiovascular and respiratory examination is unremarkable.

      The General Practitioner orders several investigations, including haemoglobin, white cell count, neutrophils, platelets, urea, creatinine, sodium, potassium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, rheumatoid factor, creatinine kinase, calcium, alkaline phosphatase, thyroid stimulating hormone, and protein electrophoresis.

      What is the appropriate next management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone 15 mg daily with dose tapering over 2 years

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and raised ESR indicate a likely case of polymyalgia rheumatica, with no other factors suggesting an alternative diagnosis. Statin-induced myopathy is unlikely due to the normal CK levels. Therefore, a trial of steroid therapy is appropriate, with a typical starting dose of prednisolone around 15 mg. The diagnosis will be confirmed if symptoms rapidly improve with treatment, and observational studies suggest a median time to stopping therapy of two years. Musculoskeletal ultrasound may identify inflammation around the shoulders and hips, but its usefulness outside of specialist settings is yet to be determined. (Source: Mackie S, Mallen C. Polymyalgia rheumatica. BMJ 2013;347:f6937)

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15 mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man complains of occasional joint pains affecting his elbows, hips and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man complains of occasional joint pains affecting his elbows, hips and ankles for the past four months. He describes each episode as involving pain, swelling and redness in one of the mentioned joints, which usually resolves with anti-inflammatory medication within a day or two.
      Lately, the frequency of attacks has increased to once or twice a week from the previous one or two attacks every month. The most recent episode, involving the left knee, occurred two days ago.
      During the examination at the clinic, there were no signs of synovitis in any of the joints.
      What is the most appropriate initial step to take?

      Your Answer: Give the patient open access to the rheumatology clinic when they have the next attack

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Approach for Palindromic Rheumatism

      Palindromic rheumatism is a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of joint inflammation that last less than 72 hours before completely resolving. It can progress to rheumatoid arthritis in some patients. When a patient experiences an attack, it is important to consider crystal arthritis as the most common cause and perform synovial fluid aspiration to examine for urate and calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Other diseases, such as periodic fever syndromes, Whipple’s disease, arthritis associated with hyperlipidemia, and intermittent hydrarthrosis, should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. ANCA testing is not necessary as vasculitis is unlikely. X-rays are not useful in the early stages, but an ultrasound or MRI can detect subclinical synovitis. ANA testing is non-specific, and anti-CCP antibody testing is more sensitive and specific for a diagnosis of RA. A bone scan is not justified for a patient with a 6-month history. To manage palindromic rheumatism, give the patient open access to the rheumatology clinic when they have the next attack.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old Arabic male presents with a high temperature, abdominal pain, and a...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old Arabic male presents with a high temperature, abdominal pain, and a fixed erythematous rash on his ankle. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender, but other systems appear normal. Upon questioning, he admits to several similar episodes in the past that have resolved spontaneously after three to seven days. Blood tests reveal leukocytosis, neutrophilia, high ESR, CRP, and a normal UE&C, amylase, and LFTs. A mild polyclonal increase in serum immunoglobulin is also present. A chest x-ray is normal, and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a scanty amount of free fluid. Recent blood tests show Hb 111 g/L (130-180), WBC 18.8 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 90% (40-75), Lymphocytes 10% (20-45), Eosinophils 30% (1-6), Platelet 270 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 86 mm/hr (0-15), and CRP 143 mg/L (<10). What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial Mediterranean fever

      Explanation:

      Familial Mediterranean Fever: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Familial Mediterranean fever (FMF) is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, pleurisy, synovitis, and rash. The rash is tender, erythematous with plaque on the dorsum of foot, leg or ankle. Colchicine is the drug of choice for this condition. It is important to differentiate FMF from other periodic fever syndromes such as hyper IgD syndrome, adult onset Still’s disease, Behçet’s disease, and TNF receptor activating periodic fevers.

      Hyper IgD syndrome can also cause periodic fevers, but patients have elevated IgD levels and lymphadenopathy is common. Adult onset Still’s disease presents with a transient, salmon pink rash, sore throat, and fever. Behçet’s disease does not lead to periodic fevers. TNF receptor activating periodic fevers typically have their onset in childhood and are associated with headache, myalgia, and eye involvement.

      In summary, FMF should be considered in patients with recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, pleurisy, synovitis, and rash. Differential diagnosis should include other periodic fever syndromes, and appropriate treatment with colchicine should be initiated.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up after being treated...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up after being treated for a left Colles fracture at the Emergency Department. She has a medical history of severe oesophagitis, a previous lumbar spine fracture, and a deep vein thrombosis while on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) 10 years ago. She is interested in preventive measures against osteoporosis.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 210 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      T score –4.2
      What is the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Teriparatide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis: Evaluating the Appropriate Choice for a Patient with a Low T Score

      When considering treatment options for osteoporosis, it is important to evaluate the individual patient’s T score and fracture history. For a patient with a T score of -4.0 or below and two or more fractures, teriparatide is a suitable option. This synthetic PTH analogue increases osteoblast activity and is given as a once-a-day subcutaneous injection.

      Etidronate, although it can be given in larger doses with decreased dosing frequency, should be avoided due to its propensity to cause oesophagitis. Calcium and vitamin D alone are not appropriate for a patient with a very low T score.

      Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is less effective at preserving BMD than bisphosphonates and is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It is not an appropriate option for this patient.

      Strontium, which is associated with increased cardiovascular events and potentially with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is reserved for patients where other options for treating osteoporosis are unsuitable.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old woman visits a geriatric clinic due to frequent falls at home....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits a geriatric clinic due to frequent falls at home. She has never been to the clinic before. Two weeks ago, she had a CT scan of her head, cervical spine, and right hip, which showed no acute injury. However, she has been experiencing worsening pain in her right hip for the past year, especially during activity and in the evenings. On examination, she is tender to deep palpation and experiences painful internal and external rotation. She reports being otherwise healthy, with a medical history of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her general practitioner has advised her to lose weight.

      What is the most appropriate additional advice for managing her hip pain?

      Your Answer: Muscle strengthening exercises and aerobic fitness

      Explanation:

      Local muscle strengthening exercises and improving general aerobic fitness are crucial for managing knee and hip osteoarthritis. In the case of this woman with chronic hip pain, acute injury is unlikely based on recent negative imaging. Therefore, as per the latest NICE guidance, she should be offered weight loss assistance and advised on local muscle strengthening exercises and general aerobic fitness. While elevating limbs can reduce acute swelling in acute injuries, it will not benefit this woman’s osteoarthritis. Similarly, reducing alcohol intake is a preventative measure for gout and not effective in this case. While regular rest throughout the day may provide temporary relief, it will not result in lasting improvement and may be debilitating.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man who is being treated with methotrexate for psoriasis has misunderstood...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man who is being treated with methotrexate for psoriasis has misunderstood the directions for therapy and presents to the clinic with glossitis, severe mouth ulcers and megaloblastic anaemia.

      On further questioning, it transpires he has been taking a dose of 30 mg per week, rather than 15 mg per week.

      Investigations reveal the following:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 95 g/l (normal value: 130-180 g/l)

      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - 110 fl (normal value: 80-100 fl)

      White cell count (WCC) - 2.5 × 109/l (normal value: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)

      Platelets (PLT) - 100 × 109/l (normal value: 150-400 × 109/l)

      What is the most appropriate rescue medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folinic acid

      Explanation:

      Medication Error and Treatment for Methotrexate Overdose

      Medication errors can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are prescribed methotrexate. Calcium folinate, also known as folinic acid, is a potent antagonist for the effects of methotrexate on the hematopoietic system. It is given by intravenous infusion at doses of up to 75 mg in the first 12 hours, followed by doses of 6-12 mg every 4 hours. Blood transfusion may also be required in exceptional circumstances. In cases of massive methotrexate overdose, hydration and urinary alkalinisation may be an option, while standard dialysis is ineffective. Intermittent high-flux dialysis may be of value.

      However, medication errors can occur when patients find it difficult to understand that they must take their medication weekly, as opposed to daily. In such cases, patients may require treatment for methotrexate overdose. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause similar symptoms to folate deficiency, but it occurs over years, while folate deficiency develops over months. Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, primarily seen in patients with drug or alcohol dependence or in severe malnourishment. Iron deficiency can occur due to decreased dietary intake, reduced absorption, and blood loss, causing microcytic anemia. Niacin deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by photosensitive pigmented dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, primarily seen in patients with malabsorption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man presents to an outpatient respiratory clinic with a 3-month history...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to an outpatient respiratory clinic with a 3-month history of weight loss, cough, weakness and intermittent haemoptysis. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is on regular amlodipine, ramipril and metformin. He has smoked 15 cigarettes daily for approximately 40 years. He denies alcohol or recreational drug use.

      On clinical examination, he appears underweight. His observations demonstrate a heart rate of 87 beats per minute, blood pressure 145/82 mmHg, respiratory rate 15/minute, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air and temperature of 36.7ºC. Chest auscultation reveals a monophonic wheeze in the left upper lobe. His heart sounds are normal and there are no murmurs or peripheral oedema. There is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. His fingers are clubbed. Power is 3+/5 proximally in the upper and lower limbs. He finds it difficult to get up off his chair. Sensation is preserved, reflexes are normal and plantar reflexes are downgoing. There is no rash.

      Blood tests:

      Hb 111 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 444 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 129 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 111 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 8 mg/L (< 5)
      Creatine kinase 5891 U/L (40-320)
      TSH 5.9 miU/L (0.2 - 5.5)
      Free T4 11.1pmol/L (10 - 24.5)


      A chest x-ray demonstrates a coin lesion in the upper zone of the left lung.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If CK levels are elevated along with malignancy, it may indicate the presence of polymyositis.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 28 - A 37-year-old Armenian tourist presents with a 3-day history of fever, chest pain,...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old Armenian tourist presents with a 3-day history of fever, chest pain, abdominal pain, and shortness of breath, accompanied by a temperature of 38.5 degrees. She has no known medical history and has experienced at least two previous episodes of similar pain that resolved spontaneously without treatment or diagnosis. Her mother was recently hospitalized for similar symptoms. On examination, she has a pleural rub and a swollen, tender left 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint. Her blood tests reveal:

      - Hb 14.5 g/dl
      - Platelets 560 * 109/l
      - WBC 17.8 * 109/l
      - Na+ 143 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      - Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 78 µmol/l
      - CRP 78 mg/l

      A chest X-ray shows mild bilateral pleural effusions with no significant consolidation. Her Mantoux test is negative, and a urine dip and culture are negative. Urinary porphobilinogen is also negative. A rheumatology consultation is requested for the synovitis, and colchicine is prescribed, which results in the resolution of all symptoms within 24 hours. An infectious diseases consultation and induced sputum are pending. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial mediterranean fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Familial Mediterranean Fever

      Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF) is a genetic disorder that usually manifests during the second decade of life. It is more prevalent among individuals of Turkish, Armenian, and Arabic descent. FMF is an autosomal recessive disorder, which means that a person must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the condition.

      The symptoms of FMF typically last for one to three days and include fever, abdominal pain, pleurisy, pericarditis, arthritis, and an erysipeloid rash on the lower limbs. The abdominal pain is due to peritonitis, which is inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity. Pleurisy is inflammation of the lining of the lungs, while pericarditis is inflammation of the lining of the heart. Arthritis is inflammation of the joints, and the erysipeloid rash is a skin condition that causes redness and swelling.

      The management of FMF involves the use of colchicine, which can help to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Colchicine works by reducing inflammation in the body. It is important to note that FMF is a chronic condition, and individuals with the disorder may require lifelong treatment to manage their symptoms.

      Overall, understanding FMF is crucial for individuals who may be at risk of developing the condition or who have already been diagnosed. With proper management, individuals with FMF can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A 46-year-old woman presents to the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of bone pain...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of bone pain and weakness. She reports difficulty getting up and has noticed a progressive decline in her strength. Her diet consists mainly of minimally processed seeds and beans. On examination, she has 3/5 power in shoulder abduction and adduction, and 3/5 power in hip flexion and extension. Her plantar reflexes are flexor. Laboratory investigations reveal abnormal levels of alkaline phosphatase, phosphate, and corrected calcium. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Proximal Myopathy: Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by bone pain and proximal myopathy. Blood tests typically show mild hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia, along with high alkaline phosphatase levels. Additionally, an acidosis may be present due to the inhibition of phosphate, bicarbonate, and sodium reabsorption by parathyroid hormone. Osteomalacia is more common in dark-skinned ethnic groups or those who wear extensive skin coverings, as this inhibits the conversion of cholesterol to vitamin D in the skin. A diet high in minimally processed whole nuts, seeds, and beans can also increase the risk of osteomalacia due to the phytic acid chelating vitamin D and calcium. X-rays may reveal Looser’s zones, which are areas of decalcification. Other conditions, such as type 1 renal tubular acidosis, hypoparathyroidism, hypothyroidism, and polymyalgia rheumatica, can present with similar symptoms but have different biochemical profiles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old patient presents to rheumatology with a complaint of bothersome dry eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient presents to rheumatology with a complaint of bothersome dry eyes and dry mouth for the past year. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease and adheres to a gluten-free diet. On examination, dry oral mucosa is noted, but there are no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody and an elevated ESR. What is the most conclusive method for confirming the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salivary gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      Salivary gland biopsy is the most reliable method for confirming a diagnosis of primary Sjogren’s syndrome, as it will reveal a characteristic lymphocytic infiltrate. This is particularly relevant for a patient presenting with dry eyes and mouth, elevated ESR, and a strongly positive antinuclear antibody, without any other connective tissue disease symptoms. While ENA testing may help subclassify the serology, it is not as specific as a lip biopsy. Similarly, while measuring salivary flow and conducting Schirmer’s test can aid in the diagnosis, they are not as definitive as a positive salivary gland biopsy.

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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Rheumatology (28/29) 97%
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