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  • Question 1 - What is the accurate statement regarding culture-specific disorders? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement regarding culture-specific disorders?

      Your Answer: South Asians rarely complain about mental health problems

      Explanation:

      Depression can be presented differently across cultures. For example, Afro-Caribbean men may report erectile dysfunction and other physical symptoms when experiencing depression. South Asians may also experience mental health problems, but are more likely to report physical symptoms rather than psychological distress. In the United Kingdom, there is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among black immigrants. In Siberia, there is a type of jumping disease called Myriachit, which may be similar to latah, a culture-bound syndrome seen in Southeast Asia characterized by hyper-suggestibility, echolalia, echopraxia, coprolalia, disorganization, and automatic obedience. Amok is another culture-bound syndrome that typically occurs in men and involves a period of withdrawal followed by sudden outbursts of homicidal aggression. Susto is a culture-bound syndrome seen in Latin America that is attributed to severe fright causing the soul to leave the body and is characterized by anxiety, sadness, altered sleep and eating habits, and physical symptoms such as headache, stomach-ache, muscle aches, and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which condition is commonly linked to pronator drift? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is commonly linked to pronator drift?

      Your Answer: Decreased tone

      Correct Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      Spasticity is the correct answer as pronator drift is a sign of upper motor neuron lesions, while the other options are indicative of lower motor neuron lesions.

      Understanding Pronator Drift in Neurological Examinations

      Pronator drift is a neurological sign that is commonly observed during a medical examination. This sign is elicited by asking the patient to flex their arms forward at a 90-degree angle to the shoulders, supinate their forearms, close their eyes, and maintain the position. In a normal scenario, the position should remain unchanged. However, in some cases, one arm may be seen to pronate.

      Pronator drift is typically caused by an upper motor neuron lesion. There are various underlying conditions that can lead to this type of lesion, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and brain tumors. The presence of pronator drift can help healthcare professionals to identify the location and severity of the lesion, as well as to determine the appropriate course of treatment.

      Overall, understanding pronator drift is an important aspect of neurological examinations. By recognizing this sign and its underlying causes, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer: CAGE questionnaire

      Correct Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the EEG waveform with the slowest frequency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the EEG waveform with the slowest frequency?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Correct Answer: Delta

      Explanation:

      EEG Waveform Frequencies

      Delta waves have the lowest frequency among the EEG waveforms, ranging from 0.5 to 4 Hz. Theta waves follow with a frequency range of 4 to 8 Hz, while alpha waves have a frequency range of 8 to 14 Hz. Beta waves have a frequency range of 14 to 32 Hz, and gamma waves have a frequency range of 32 to 48+ Hz. In a normal awake adult EEG, alpha waves are the most prominent waveform.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which statement accurately describes Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of these medications experience substantial liver metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these medications experience substantial liver metabolism?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      The majority of psychotropics undergo significant hepatic metabolism, with the exclusion of amisulpride, sulpiride, gabapentin, and lithium, which experience little to no hepatic metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which factor is most closely linked to the development of dementia in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor is most closely linked to the development of dementia in individuals with HIV?

      Your Answer: Neuronal infection

      Correct Answer: Monocyte infiltration and microglial activation

      Explanation:

      The strongest association with HIV dementia is the infiltration of monocytes and activation of microglia in the brain. While the presence of HIV encephalopathy is somewhat linked to HIV associated dementia, the extent of monocyte infiltration and microglial activation is the best indicator of AIDS dementia. Microglia can cause damage to neurons by releasing oxidative radicals, nitric oxide, and cytokines. The correlation between viral load and HAD is not significant. Astrocytes have limited susceptibility to HIV infection, and neuronal infection is rare and unlikely to have a significant impact on HIV-related CNS disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which statement about Fragile X is not true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Fragile X is not true?

      Your Answer: It only affects males

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention?

      Your Answer: Rehabilitation

      Explanation:

      The prevention of a disease can be divided into three levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the effects of an existing disease and helping individuals achieve their optimal level of functioning. Primary prevention involves implementing broad changes to decrease the overall risk of a disease in a population, such as promoting healthy nutrition, positive parenting, and smoking cessation. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention through screening programs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?

      Your Answer: Excessive Na reabsorption in the loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Impaired action of ADH on principal cells

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the genetic condition that occurs due to the removal of genetic...

    Correct

    • What is the genetic condition that occurs due to the removal of genetic material from chromosome 22?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome is primarily caused by a deletion on chromosome 22 and presents with a range of symptoms. To aid in remembering the chromosome involved and some of the signs and symptoms, a mnemonic is used. These include cardiac abnormalities such as tetralogy of Fallot, abnormal facies with almond-shaped eyes and low-set ears, thymic aplasia leading to recurrent infections, cleft palate, and hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism causing short stature and seizures. Additionally, individuals with DiGeorge syndrome often have a degree of learning disability and are at an increased risk for psychiatric conditions such as depression, ADHD, and schizophrenia.

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager who believes stealing is justified if it is done to provide for one's family, and when asked why, responds with because it's common knowledge?

      Your Answer: Maintaining the social order

      Correct Answer: Good interpersonal relationships

      Explanation:

      Sophie has entered the phase of conventional morality where she comprehends that morality is determined by motivation rather than outcomes. However, societal norms still dictate what is considered moral rather than individual beliefs. This is exemplified by the emphasis on everyone in moral reasoning. Additionally, children begin to recognize the significance of portraying themselves as having virtuous intentions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on clozapine, but is experiencing clinical deterioration with a serum clozapine level below 1000 µg/L. What medication should be added if the patient's clozapine serum levels remain above this value?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      If serum clozapine levels remain elevated, it is recommended to add anticonvulsant cover due to the increased risk of seizures and EEG changes. While some clinicians may advocate for higher clozapine levels, there is limited evidence to support this practice. Amisulpride can be used to augment clozapine, but it is not necessary in this situation. Beta-blockers are used to treat persistent tachycardia caused by clozapine, while hyoscine hydrobromide is used to manage clozapine-associated hypersalivation. Loperamide is unlikely to be needed as clozapine is known to cause constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most accurate estimation of the heritability of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate estimation of the heritability of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 55%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is classified as a mature defence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a mature defence?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Correct Answer: Suppression

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer: Fluphenazine

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is an example of the young women's behavior on the ward? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of the young women's behavior on the ward?

      Your Answer: Delusion of reference

      Correct Answer: Delusional mood/atmosphere

      Explanation:

      Typically, when a delusion arises, the patient feels a sense of relief from the preceding anxiety and tension. The delusional atmosphere is the perception that something is amiss, while the delusional mood refers to the accompanying feelings of anxiety and tension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in...

    Incorrect

    • A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in which cranial nerve?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the vagus nerve commonly result in the following symptoms: a raspy of weak voice, difficulty swallowing, absence of the gag reflex, deviation of the uvula away from the affected side, and an inability to elevate the palate.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.9
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  • Question 19 - A 40 year old female is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis of depression. On admission the doctor notes skin changes consistent with erythema nodosum and also notes that the patient complains of being short of breath. Unfortunately the lady commits suicide shortly after admission. A post-mortem biopsy reveals Asteroid bodies. Which of the following diagnosis would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Pathology Findings in Psychiatry

      There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.

      Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.

      Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.

      Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.

      Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.

      LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.

      Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.

      Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      28.1
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  • Question 20 - What is the accurate statement about Thurstone's scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about Thurstone's scale?

      Your Answer: It has good reliability

      Correct Answer: It is time consuming

      Explanation:

      The Thurstone scale’s reliability is limited due to the process of constructing it. While a large number of statements are collected and edited for clarity and relevance, the final form of the scale only includes items that have high interjudge agreement and fall at equal intervals. This selective process may result in a scale that is not entirely reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer: Michael Foucault

      Correct Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which gene is mutated to cause the CGG repeats observed in fragile X...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene is mutated to cause the CGG repeats observed in fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer: APP

      Correct Answer: FMR1

      Explanation:

      Fragile X is caused by a mutation in FMR1 that leads to the presence of CGG trinucleotide repeats. The remaining genes mentioned are associated with dementia.

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A mutation affecting the transcriptional activity of a new gene associated with Alzheimer's...

    Incorrect

    • A mutation affecting the transcriptional activity of a new gene associated with Alzheimer's disease is reported. The mutation is most likely to be in which of the following?

      Your Answer: 3 untranslated region

      Correct Answer: Promoter region

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length typically occur?

      Your Answer: Sensorimotor

      Correct Answer: Concrete operational

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following symptoms is classified as negative according to the PANSS...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is classified as negative according to the PANSS coding system?

      Your Answer: Hostility

      Correct Answer: Stereotyped thinking

      Explanation:

      The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder experiences a relapse. During examination, he repeatedly taps his foot on the ground for a few minutes at a time and then stops. He repeats this movement several times over the next hour.
      What type of motor disorder is he displaying?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Stereotypy

      Explanation:

      Stereotypy is a repetitive and purposeless movement pattern that is often distractible and is a feature of catatonia in schizophrenia. Ambitendency involves alternating between cooperation and opposition, resulting in unpredictable behavior. Mannerisms are voluntary and odd movements that typically have some functional significance, unlike stereotyped movements. Schnauzkrampf, a facial expression where the nose and lips are drawn together in a pout, is one of the abnormal movement disorders seen in schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which neuroimaging technique measures the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuroimaging technique measures the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood?

      Your Answer: Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scanning

      Correct Answer: Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

      Explanation:

      Functional Imaging Techniques

      Functional imaging techniques are used to study brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow and oxygenation levels. One such technique is functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which measures the concentration of oxygenated haemoglobin in the blood. When neural activity increases in a specific area of the brain, blood flow to that area increases, leading to a higher concentration of haemoglobin.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another technique that uses magnetic fields to create images of the brain’s structure. Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) is a related technique that can detect several odd-numbered nuclei.

      To obtain a more accurate anatomical location for functional information, single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and positron emission tomography (PET) are used. SPECT and PET both provide information about brain activity by detecting the emission of particles. However, SPECT emits a single particle, while PET emits two particles. These techniques are useful for studying brain function in both healthy individuals and those with neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is undergoing second line...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is undergoing second line mood stabilisation therapy due to inadequate response to first line agents. She was discovered unconscious on the street. She has no history of seizures of fainting. All laboratory tests are normal except for a serum sodium level of 105 mmol/L (135-150). What is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Monitoring for hyponatraemia is essential when administering carbamazepine due to its established side effect. However, it is important to note that NICE recommends lithium, olanzapine, and valproate as first line agents for treating bipolar disorder, with carbamazepine being a second line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?...

    Correct

    • Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?

      Your Answer: WBC

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile

      Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.

      It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is a true statement about the neuropathology of Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the neuropathology of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Tau accumulations are found in both senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles contain accumulations of hyperphosphorylated tau, while Hirano bodies are primarily composed of actin. The cytoskeleton is made up of microtubules (composed of tubulin), actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. Lewy bodies are characterized by the presence of insoluble aggregates of α-Synuclein, a protein that plays a role in regulating synaptic vesicle trafficking and neurotransmitter release.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Stigma And Culture (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (1/7) 14%
Classification And Assessment (1/4) 25%
Genetics (3/6) 50%
Psychopharmacology (0/5) 0%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Psychological Development (0/2) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/2) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Passmed