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Question 1
Correct
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A 38 year old is participating in a charity mountain trek up Mount Kilimanjaro but falls ill at an elevation of 3800m. What clinical feature helps differentiate high altitude cerebral edema from acute mountain sickness?
Your Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE) is a condition that develops from acute mountain sickness (AMS). Ataxia, which refers to a lack of coordination, is the primary early indication of HACE. The mentioned symptoms are typical characteristics of AMS.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a long history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and confusion. You suspect she may have spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and decide to perform an ascitic tap.
Which of the following is NOT a reason to avoid performing an ascitic tap?Your Answer: Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Platelet count of 40 x 103/µl
Explanation:Diagnosing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) requires an abdominal paracentesis of ascitic tap. Other reasons for performing a diagnostic tap include determining the cause of ascites, distinguishing between transudate and exudate, and detecting cancerous cells. Additionally, a therapeutic paracentesis can be done to alleviate respiratory distress or abdominal pain caused by the ascites.
However, there are certain contraindications to consider. These include having an uncooperative patient, a skin infection at the proposed puncture site, being pregnant, or experiencing severe bowel distension. Relative contraindications involve having severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 20 x 103/μL) or coagulopathy (INR greater than 2.0).
For patients with an INR greater than 2.0, it is recommended to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) before the procedure. One approach is to infuse one unit of fresh frozen plasma prior to the procedure and then proceed with the paracentesis while the second unit is being infused.
In the case of patients with a platelet count lower than 20 x 103/μL, it is advisable to provide a platelet infusion before the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on head injuries & increased intracranial pressure. What is the intracranial volume of a typical adult?
Your Answer: 1400ml
Explanation:On average, the intracranial volume in adults is around 1400ml.
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
What is the most common location for Meckel's diverticulum?Your Answer: Ileum
Explanation:A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.
When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.
Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.
These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.
To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
– It is found in 2% of the population.
– It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
– It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
– It is approximately 2 inches long.
– It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
– The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old triathlete is brought in by ambulance after collapsing during a triathlon event. Due to a summer heatwave, several participants have been admitted with heat-related illnesses. The patient is diagnosed with heat stroke and is in critical condition with a low GCS and signs of organ damage. You decide to transfer the patient to a critical care unit.
Which of the following cooling methods would be the LEAST suitable option for this patient?Your Answer: Cold water immersion
Explanation:There are various cooling techniques that are recommended, but currently, there is limited conclusive evidence on which approach is the most effective. Some possible methods include simple measures such as consuming cold beverages, using fans, applying ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can also be beneficial, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very ill individuals. For patients who are in a more critical condition, advanced cooling techniques like administering cold intravenous fluids, using surface cooling devices (SCD), employing intravascular cooling devices (ICD), or utilizing extracorporeal circuits may be utilized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Which characteristic is considered to be a ‘B’ symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:The ‘B’ symptoms associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma include fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Fever is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38 degrees Celsius. Night sweats refer to excessive sweating during sleep. Weight loss is considered significant if it amounts to more than 10% of a person’s body weight over a period of six months. It is important to note that pain after consuming alcohol is a distinctive sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it is not classified as a ‘B’ symptom. This symptom is relatively rare, occurring in only 2-3% of individuals diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
What steps should you take in this situation?Your Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security
Explanation:In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.
To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.
Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.
Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You review a patient on the clinical decision unit (CDU) with a known diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?Your Answer: There is a build-up of tau proteins in neurons, accumulating into silver-staining, spherical aggregations
Correct Answer: It is the third most common cause of dementia in the elderly
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that is closely linked to Parkinson’s disease (PD). It is the third most common cause of dementia in older individuals, following Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
DLB is characterized by several clinical features, including the presence of Parkinsonism or co-existing PD, a gradual decline in cognitive function, fluctuations in cognition, alertness, and attention span, episodes of temporary loss of consciousness, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, depression, and complex, systematized delusions. The level of cognitive impairment can vary from hour to hour and day to day.
Pathologically, DLB is marked by the formation of abnormal protein collections called Lewy bodies within the cytoplasm of neurons. These intracellular protein collections share similar structural characteristics with the classic Lewy bodies observed in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?Your Answer: Korsakoff psychosis
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.
The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.
It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 12-month-old child is brought in to the Emergency Department with a high temperature and difficulty breathing. You measure their respiratory rate and note that it is elevated.
According to the NICE guidelines, what is considered to be the threshold for tachypnoea in an infant of this age?Your Answer: RR >40 breaths/minute
Explanation:According to the current NICE guidelines on febrile illness in children under the age of 5, there are certain symptoms and signs that may indicate the presence of pneumonia. These include tachypnoea, which is a rapid breathing rate. For infants aged 0-5 months, a respiratory rate (RR) of over 60 breaths per minute is considered suggestive of pneumonia. For infants aged 6-12 months, an RR of over 50 breaths per minute is indicative, and for children older than 12 months, an RR of over 40 breaths per minute may suggest pneumonia.
Other signs that may point towards pneumonia include crackles in the chest, nasal flaring, chest indrawing, and cyanosis. Crackles are abnormal sounds heard during breathing, while nasal flaring refers to the widening of the nostrils during breathing. Chest indrawing is the inward movement of the chest wall during inhalation, and cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygen supply.
Additionally, a low oxygen saturation level of less than 95% while breathing air is also considered suggestive of pneumonia. These guidelines can be found in more detail in the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, pain during intercourse, and thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. Based on the clinical findings, you diagnose her with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
When would hospitalization be necessary in this case?Your Answer: Cervical motion tenderness
Correct Answer: Concurrent pregnancy
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.
PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.
To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.
Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.
For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father with a high temperature and pain in her ear. During the examination, you observe that the mastoid area is red and there is a soft, painful lump in the same spot. You diagnose her with acute mastoiditis, start her on intravenous antibiotics, and refer her to the ENT team on duty.
Which section of the temporal bone is affected in this situation?Your Answer: Petrous part
Explanation:Mastoiditis occurs when a suppurative infection spreads from otitis media, affecting the middle ear, to the mastoid antrum. This infection causes inflammation in the mastoid and surrounding tissues, potentially leading to damage to the bone.
The mastoid antrum, also known as the tympanic antrum, is an air space located in the petrous part of the temporal bone. It connects to the mastoid cells at the back and the epitympanic recess through the aditus to the mastoid antrum.
The mastoid cells come in different types, varying in number and size. There are cellular cells with thin septa, diploeic cells that are marrow spaces with few air cells, and acellular cells that are neither cells nor marrow spaces.
These air spaces serve various functions, including acting as sound receptors, providing voice resonance, offering acoustic insulation and dissipation, protecting against physical damage, and reducing the weight of the cranium.
Overall, mastoiditis occurs when an infection from otitis media spreads to the mastoid antrum, causing inflammation and potential damage to the surrounding tissues and bone. The mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells within the temporal bone play important roles in sound reception, voice resonance, protection, and reducing cranial mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating. You suspect that she is experiencing a panic attack. She was seen by a resident physician shortly before your assessment, and an arterial blood gas was taken.
What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by hyperventilation secondary to anxiety?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes in with a painful throat and a dry cough that has been bothering her for two days. During the examination, she does not have a fever and has a few tender lymph nodes in the front of her neck. Her throat and tonsils look red and inflamed, but there is no pus on her tonsils.
What is her FeverPAIN score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.
If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.
The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over to show you a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 32-year-old woman with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface following a car accident.
Which of the cranial nerves is MOST likely to be unaffected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve II
Explanation:The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.
Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.
Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 3-week-old girl presents with vomiting, poor weight gain, and decreased muscle tone. She is hypotensive and has a fast heart rate. During the examination, you notice that she has enlarged labia and increased pigmentation. Blood tests show high potassium, low sodium, and elevated levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone. A venous blood gas reveals the presence of metabolic acidosis, and her blood glucose level is slightly low. Intravenous fluids have already been started.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone and IV dextrose
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of inherited disorders that are caused by autosomal recessive genes. The majority of affected patients, over 90%, have a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This enzyme is encoded by the 21-hydroxylase gene, which is located on chromosome 6p21 within the HLA histocompatibility complex. The second most common cause of CAH is a deficiency of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase. The condition is rare, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 500 births in the UK. It is more prevalent in the offspring of consanguineous marriages.
The deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to a deficiency of cortisol and/or aldosterone, as well as an excess of precursor steroids. As a result, there is an increased secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, leading to adrenocortical hyperplasia.
The severity of CAH varies depending on the degree of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Female infants often exhibit ambiguous genitalia, such as clitoral hypertrophy and labial fusion. Male infants may have an enlarged scrotum and/or scrotal pigmentation. Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth, occurs in 10% of cases.
Boys with CAH often experience a salt-losing adrenal crisis at around 1-3 weeks of age. This crisis is characterized by symptoms such as vomiting, weight loss, floppiness, and circulatory collapse.
The diagnosis of CAH can be made by detecting markedly elevated levels of the metabolic precursor 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Neonatal screening is possible, primarily through the identification of persistently elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels.
In infants presenting with a salt-losing crisis, the following biochemical abnormalities are observed: hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia.
Boys experiencing a salt-losing crisis will require fluid resuscitation, intravenous dextrose, and intravenous hydrocortisone.
Affected females will require corrective surgery for their external genitalia. However, they have an intact uterus and ovaries and are capable of having children.
The long-term management of both sexes involves lifelong replacement of hydrocortisone (to suppress ACTH levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department 1 hour after experiencing intense tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient reports the pain as being extremely severe, rating it as 10/10. It is noted that the patient is prescribed medication for high blood pressure but admits to rarely taking the tablets. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 188/92 mmHg
Pulse rate: 96 bpm
Respiration rate: 23 rpm
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Temperature: 37.1ºC
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:The majority of dissections happen in individuals between the ages of 40 and 70, with the highest occurrence observed in the age group of 50 to 65.
Further Reading:
Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.
The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.
Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.
Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the child may have signs of airway obstruction.
Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burned patients is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You conduct an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dominant R wave in V1
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents having experienced a minor fall while shopping with her husband. He has observed that she has been forgetful for quite some time and that her condition has been gradually deteriorating over the past few years. She frequently forgets the names of people and places and struggles to find words for things. Lately, she has also been experiencing increased confusion. She has no significant medical history of note.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the leading cause of dementia, accounting for approximately half of all cases. It involves the gradual degeneration of the cerebral cortex, resulting in cortical atrophy, the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, and a decrease in acetylcholine production from affected neurons. The exact cause of this disease is still not fully understood.
The onset of Alzheimer’s disease is typically slow and subtle, progressing over a span of 7 to 10 years. The symptoms experienced by individuals vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, family and friends may notice that the patient becomes forgetful, experiencing lapses in memory. They may struggle to recall the names of people and places, as well as have difficulty finding the right words for objects. Recent events and appointments are easily forgotten. As the disease advances, language skills deteriorate, and problems with planning and decision-making arise. The patient may also exhibit apraxia and become more noticeably confused.
In the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease, symptoms become more severe. The patient may wander aimlessly, become disoriented, and display apathy. Psychiatric symptoms, such as depression, are common during this stage. Hallucinations and delusions may also occur. Behavioral issues, including disinhibition, aggression, and agitation, can be distressing for the patient’s family.
Considering the absence of a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, vascular dementia is less likely. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia typically has a more sudden onset and exhibits stepwise increases in symptom severity.
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder closely associated with Parkinson’s disease. It can be distinguished from Alzheimer’s disease by the presence of mild Parkinsonism features, fluctuations in cognition and attention, episodes of transient loss of consciousness, and early occurrence of visual hallucinations and complex delusions.
Frontotemporal dementia is a progressive form of dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes. It typically occurs at a younger age than Alzheimer’s disease, usually between 40 and 60 years old. Personality changes often precede memory loss in this condition.
Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition characterized by a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45 year old visits the emergency department complaining of extreme thirst, fatigue, and disorientation that have progressively worsened over the past week. A urine dip reveals a high level of glucose. You suspect the presence of diabetes mellitus and decide to send a plasma glucose sample for further testing. What is the appropriate threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Random venous plasma glucose concentration ≥ 11.1 mmol/l
Explanation:If a person has symptoms or signs that indicate diabetes, a random venous plasma glucose concentration of 11.1 mmol/l or higher is considered to be indicative of diabetes mellitus. However, it is important to note that a diagnosis should not be made based solely on one test. A second test should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. It is also worth mentioning that temporary high blood sugar levels may occur in individuals who are experiencing acute infection, trauma, circulatory issues, or other forms of stress that are not related to diabetes.
Further Reading:
Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.
The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.
Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.
It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates an acute myocardial infarction, and he is immediately taken to the catheterization laboratory. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anteroseptal
Explanation:A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.
For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.
In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.
Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.
In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.
What is the SINGLE most probable UNDERLYING diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and typically manifests as a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. In some instances, there may be the presence of pus in the front part of the eye known as hypopyon.
Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic (no known cause), trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can also be associated with anterior uveitis.
A significant association has been observed between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the middle spine area and sacroiliitis. It is worth noting that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while driving her car and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. She is currently immobilized on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place.
According to the ATLS guidelines, how much crystalloid fluid should be administered during the initial assessment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 L
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a painful, swollen right ankle following a recent hike in the mountains. You assess her for a possible sprained ankle, and as part of your assessment, you measure her ankle circumference.
What is the THRESHOLD level suggested by NICE as indicating a higher likelihood of a sprained ankle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: More than 3 cm between the extremities
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) suggest considering the possibility of DVT if typical symptoms and signs are present, particularly if the person has risk factors like previous venous thromboembolism and immobility.
Typical signs and symptoms of DVT include unilateral localized pain (often throbbing) that occurs during walking or bearing weight, as well as calf swelling (or, less commonly, swelling of the entire leg). Other signs to look out for are tenderness, skin changes such as edema, redness, and warmth, and vein distension.
To rule out other potential causes for the symptoms and signs, it is important to conduct a physical examination and review the person’s general medical history.
When assessing leg and thigh swelling, it is recommended to measure the circumference of the leg 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity and compare it with the unaffected leg. A difference of more than 3 cm between the two legs increases the likelihood of DVT.
Additionally, it is important to check for edema and dilated collateral superficial veins on the affected side.
To assess the likelihood of DVT and guide further management, the two-level DVT Wells score can be used.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 hours
Explanation:The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought in to see you by his father following an incident where he developed a rash, wheeze, and abdominal pain after accidentally eating a peanut. He has a known history of peanut allergy and carries an EpiPen junior with him at all times. His father administered the EpiPen junior, and the child now feels fine, but his father would like you to examine him.
What is the total amount of adrenaline administered in a single dose by an EpiPen junior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.15 mg
Explanation:An EpiPen is a device that automatically injects adrenaline and is used to treat anaphylaxis. It is often given to individuals who are at risk of experiencing anaphylaxis so that they can administer it themselves if needed.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with the various auto-injector devices that are commonly available. In the event that an adrenaline auto-injector is the only option for treating anaphylaxis, healthcare professionals should not hesitate to use it.
Each EpiPen auto-injector contains a single dose of 0.3 mg of adrenaline. For children, there is also a version called EpiPen Jr that contains a single dose of 0.15 mg of adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 78-year-old individual who has experienced excessive bleeding from the right nostril for a duration of 2 hours. During the examination, you observe a bleed originating from Little's area of the nasal septum.
Which of the following accurately characterizes the arteries that contribute to the arterial anastomosis in Little's area?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery
Explanation:Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is formed by the connection of four or five arteries. These arteries include the greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery, and sphenopalatine artery. Some sources also include the posterior ethmoidal artery as part of the plexus. The greater palatine artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, while the anterior ethmoidal artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery. The superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery are both branches of the external carotid artery. The posterior ethmoidal artery, if included, is a branch of the ophthalmic artery.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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