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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia that she has been experiencing for the past 4 years. She reports severe pain during her menstrual cycle and feels nauseous. Additionally, she mentions that she and her partner have been trying to conceive for 2 years without any success. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The main indicators of this condition are cyclic abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia, which may be accompanied by fertility issues. Unlike endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease does not typically cause pain during menstruation. A bicornuate uterus, which is a congenital anomaly resulting in a heart-shaped uterus, is associated with a higher risk of recurrent miscarriages. Cervical carcinomas are usually accompanied by abnormal bleeding, such as post-coital and inter-menstrual bleeding, but they are unlikely to have been present for as long as three years.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex last night, 14 days after giving birth. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Offer ulipristal acetate 30mg
Correct Answer: Advice the patient that she does not require emergency contraception
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception only after 21 days.
As the woman in the question is only 14 days post-partum, she does not need emergency contraception. Therefore, the advice to her would be that emergency contraception is not necessary.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient attends a routine appointment at the GP surgery to discuss her use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She informs you that she has recently started taking some medications and is concerned about their potential impact on the effectiveness of the contraceptive pill. Can you identify which medication may decrease the efficacy of the COCP?
Your Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:If enzyme-inducing drugs are taken at the same time as the combined oral contraceptive pill, its effectiveness is decreased. Out of the given choices, only St John’s wort is an enzyme inducer, while the rest are enzyme inhibitors.
Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false?
Your Answer: The early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan should not be done at the same time
Explanation:Nowadays, numerous facilities combine the early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan into a single procedure.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is a sexually active sixteen-year-old seeking advice about her contraceptive patch. She typically changes the patch on Saturday mornings but forgot to do so this week. What guidance should you provide?
Your Answer: Change the patch now and use barrier contraceptives for two days and consider emergency contraception
Correct Answer: Change the patch now, use barrier contraceptives for seven days and consider emergency contraception
Explanation:To ensure the effectiveness of the contraceptive patch, it should be applied to clean, dry skin on a weekly basis for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week to stimulate a withdrawal bleed. However, if the patch change is delayed for more than 48 hours, it is important to change it immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next 7 days. In case of unprotected intercourse, emergency contraceptives should be considered.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation about contraceptive options with a 17-year-old girl. What would be the most appropriate method to suggest?
Your Answer: Intra-uterine system (Mirena)
Correct Answer: Progestogen-only implant (Nexplanon)
Explanation:When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.
It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?
Your Answer: Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in secondary dysmenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Adenomyosis is the condition where the tissue lining the uterus (endometrium) grows into the muscular wall of the uterus (myometrium).
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented with a minor painless vaginal bleed at 38 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound scan revealed that the placenta was anterior and partially covering the internal cervical os. The presenting foetal pole was in the cephalic position. The bleeding had ceased.
What is the most suitable method of delivery? Choose the ONE most appropriate option from the list provided.Your Answer: Perform external cephalic version and aim for vaginal delivery
Correct Answer: Admit into hospital and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks
Explanation:When a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, it is important to promptly assess her and focus on her and the fetus’s well-being. This includes monitoring vital signs, initiating electronic fetal monitoring, and obtaining blood tests to determine the need for Rh immunoglobulin and blood transfusions. If significant bleeding occurs, blood should be cross-matched for rapid replacement of blood volume. Once stability is achieved, the cause of the bleeding can be assessed through ultrasound and sterile speculum exams. If the bleeding is severe or fetal monitoring is non-reassuring, emergency caesarean delivery is necessary. Otherwise, the mode of delivery is determined by the proximity of the placenta to the internal os of the cervix. Hospitalization is recommended for at least 48 hours during a sentinel bleeding episode, and multiple episodes may require hospitalization until delivery. Disseminated intravascular coagulation should also be considered, and clotting studies may be ordered. this patient should be admitted and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks
Respiratory morbidity, including transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN), is more common in babies delivered by caesarean section, especially before 39 weeks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Oral labetalol
Explanation:Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage of labour due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The midwife is aware of the potential risks to both the mother and foetus and calls for an obstetrician. The obstetrician performs a perineal incision in a mediolateral direction. What is the name of this procedure?
Your Answer: Episiotomy
Explanation:The procedure being performed is called an episiotomy, which can be done using various techniques. In this case, the medio-lateral approach is being used, which involves making a cut at either the 7 o’clock or 5 o’clock positions. The main reasons for performing this procedure are twofold. Firstly, it helps to prevent the vagina from tearing during childbirth, particularly in cases where the baby’s head is too large for the mother’s pelvis. By making a controlled incision, the risk of the tear extending towards the anus and surrounding muscles is reduced, which could lead to long-term problems such as fecal incontinence. Secondly, the episiotomy creates more space for the baby to pass through, making delivery easier and safer for both the mother and child.
Understanding Episiotomy
Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the posterior wall of the vagina and perineum during the second stage of labor. This procedure is done to make it easier for the baby to pass through the birth canal. The incision is made in the area between the vagina and anus, and it can be either midline or mediolateral.
Episiotomy is usually performed when the baby is in distress, and there is a need to speed up the delivery process. It can also be done to prevent tearing of the perineum, which can be more difficult to repair than an episiotomy. However, the procedure is not without risks, and it can lead to complications such as pain, infection, and bleeding.
In recent years, there has been a decline in the use of episiotomy, as studies have shown that it does not necessarily reduce the risk of tearing or improve healing time. Many healthcare providers now only perform episiotomy when it is medically necessary. It is important for expectant mothers to discuss the use of episiotomy with their healthcare provider and understand the risks and benefits before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman complains of recurrent pain that occurs in a cyclical pattern around the time of her menstrual cycle. The pain begins a few days before the onset of her period and persists for several days after. Additionally, she experiences discomfort during sexual intercourse, especially with deep penetration. Upon examination, tender nodularity is observed in the posterior fornix. The patient has already attempted to alleviate her symptoms with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but they are no longer effective. What is the most suitable next course of action?
Your Answer: Leuprorelin
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:When simple analgesia fails to alleviate endometriosis-related pain, the next step in treatment is to try either progestogens or the combined oral contraceptive pill. These hormonal treatments are generally effective in managing the symptoms of endometriosis. While clomifene may be used to induce ovulation in certain conditions, it is not the recommended next step in pain management for endometriosis. Elagolix, a new gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonist, is licensed in the USA for endometriosis-related pain but is not widely used in the UK. Laparoscopic excision is a more invasive option and is typically reserved for later stages of treatment. Therefore, hormonal options are the next most appropriate step after simple analgesia for managing endometriosis-related pain.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening lower abdominal pain over the past 48 hours. The pain is located in the suprapubic area and slightly to the left. She experienced some vaginal bleeding this morning, which she describes as light. The patient also reports shoulder pain that started after playing tennis. Her last menstrual period was seven weeks ago and was normal. She has a history of Chlamydia infection and admits to not practicing safe sex. On examination, she is tender in the left iliac fossa. Her blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg, and her pulse is 100/min. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy presents with amenorrhoea, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and shoulder tip pain indicating peritoneal bleeding.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the gynaecology clinic with symptoms of endometriosis and severe dysmenorrhoea. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced much relief. She has no immediate plans to start a family. What is the initial recommended treatment option, assuming there are no contraindications?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?
Your Answer: Give first dose of anti-D as soon as possible
Correct Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period
Explanation:If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.
In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about UPSI she had four days ago. She has a medical history of asthma and psoriasis, and is allergic to latex. She uses oral steroids for her asthma but takes no regular medication. You suggest the copper coil as a form of emergency contraception, but the patient prefers a pill and mentions that her housemate recently took the 'EllaOne emergency pill' (ulipristal acetate). Why is the same method not suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: UPSI being 4 days ago
Correct Answer: Asthma controlled by oral steroids
Explanation:When administering ulipristal acetate to individuals with severe asthma who are using oral steroids to control their condition, caution should be exercised due to the anti-glucocorticoid effect of the medication. The possibility of latex allergy should be considered when recommending barrier contraceptive methods or conducting a physical examination while wearing latex gloves. The failure to use regular contraception is a valid reason to offer emergency contraception following unprotected sexual intercourse. The use of ulipristal as emergency contraception may require caution in individuals with psoriasis, as this condition can be managed with oral steroids. However, it is important to note that oral steroids are only recommended for the individual’s asthma.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
Your Answer: BRCA2 gene
Explanation:The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP on a Friday afternoon with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) on Sunday at 9 pm, which was five days ago. The patient has no medical history of note and is not taking any regular medications. However, she reports experiencing abnormal discharge and intermenstrual bleeding for the past two weeks. What emergency contraception method would you suggest?
Your Answer: Copper coil
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Explanation:Ulipristal, also known as EllaOne, is a form of emergency hormonal contraception that can be taken within 120 hours after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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