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  • Question 1 - A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible fall during a photoshoot. The patient reported falling on his right forearm. There is evident swelling and tenderness on the affected area, with notable weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle. Radiographic imaging showed a fracture on the midshaft of the right radius.Which of the following nerves is most likely injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor pollicis longus receives nervous supply from the anterior interosseous branch of median nerve, derived from spinal roots C7 and C8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line:

      Your Answer: A line in the middle of the H-zone that holds the myosin filament in position

      Correct Answer: A line dividing muscle fibres into sarcomeres

      Explanation:

      Each muscle fibre is divided at regular intervals along its length into sarcomeres separated by Z-lines. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-II receptor blockers are a useful alternative in patients who cannot tolerate ACE-inhibitors due a persistent cough.

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in patients of Afro-Caribbean descent who may respond less well; calcium channel blockers are first line for hypertension in these patients. ACE inhibitors have a role in the management of diabetic nephropathy. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnant women. ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin; this is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Blocking ACE also diminishes the breakdown of the potent vasodilator bradykinin which is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers do not have this effect, therefore they are useful alternative for patients who have to discontinue an ACE inhibitor because of persistent cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The results from the study investigating the accuracy of a new diagnostic test can be...

    Incorrect

    • The results from the study investigating the accuracy of a new diagnostic test can be displayed in the following format. How is the positive predictive value calculated:Those with diseaseThose without diseaseTotalTest positiveaba+bTest negativecdc+dTotala+cb+dn=a+b+c+d

      Your Answer: a/(a+c)

      Correct Answer: a/(a+b)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.PPV = a/(a+b)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding chronic idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chronic idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion.

      Correct Answer: ITP is classically associated with massive splenomegaly.

      Explanation:

      Chronic ITP is a relatively common disorder. The highest incidence is in women aged 15 – 50 years. It is the most common cause of thrombocytopaenia without anaemia or neutropaenia. It is usually idiopathic but it may been seen in association with other conditions. Platelet autoantibodies (usually IgG) result in the premature removal of platelets from the circulation by macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system. In many causes the antibody is directed against the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib complex. The normal platelet lifespan of 10 days is reduced to a few hours. Total megakaryocyte mass and platelet turnover are increased to approximately five times normal. Despite the destruction of platelets by splenic macrophages, the spleen is normally not enlarged.  In fact, an enlarged spleen should lead to a search for other possible causes for the thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle?

      Your Answer: It assists with adduction of the hand at the wrist joint

      Correct Answer: It lacks the juncturae tendinum

      Explanation:

      Extensor indicis is a narrow, elongated muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. It lacks the juncturae tendinum, which connects the extensor digitorum on the dorsal aspect of the hand.Extensor indicis can be palpated by applying deep pressure over the lower part of the ulna while the index finger is extended. The main function of extensor indicis involves the extension of the index finger at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. As the index finger is one of the few fingers that have their own separate extensor muscle, it is able to extend independently from other fingers. Additionally, extensor indicis muscle produces a weak extension of the wrist.Extensor indicis receives its nervous supply from posterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the radial nerve derived from spinal roots C7 and C8. The skin overlying the muscle is supplied by the same nerve, with fibres that stem from the spinal roots C6 and C7.The superficial surface of the extensor indicis receives arterial blood supply from posterior interosseous branch of the ulnar artery, whereas its deep surface receives blood from perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding amoxicillin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding amoxicillin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin absorption is not affected by the presence of food in the stomach.

      Correct Answer: It is used first line for bacterial tonsillitis.

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin is a derivative of ampicillin and has a similar antibacterial spectrum. It is better absorbed than ampicillin when given orally, producing higher plasma and tissue concentrations; unlike ampicillin, absorption is not affected by the presence of food in the stomach. The adverse effects of amoxicillin are mainly gastrointestinal and mild and include nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea. Amoxicillin is used first line for low to moderate severity community acquired pneumonia, exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, for acute otitis media, for acute sinusitis, for oral infections/dental abscess, for Listeria meningitis (in combination with another antibiotic), for infective endocarditis (in combination with another antibiotic) and for H. Pylori eradication (in combination with metronidazole/clarithromycin and a PPI). Penicillin V is used first line for bacterial tonsillitis; amoxicillin should be avoided in blind treatment of a sore throat as there is a high risk of a rash if glandular fever is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      78
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Chief cells of the parathyroid gland

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a peptide hormone synthesised by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands, located immediately behind the thyroid gland. PTH is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma [Ca2+] concentration. PTH acts to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron (by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane) and increase phosphate excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth due to sudden onset severe jaundice and generalised oedema. Family history reveals that this is the second baby, while blood testing shows that the mother has an Rh-negative blood group while the baby is Rh-positive. A diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn is established. Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A usually doesn’t pose a special risk to a pregnant woman or her baby. Maternal infection doesn’t result in birth defects, and a mother typically doesn’t transmit the infection to her baby. HAV is almost always transmitted by the faecal-oral route and is usually acquired through close personal contact or via contaminated food.When a woman has chickenpox in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1 in 50 chance for the baby to develop a set of birth defects. This is called the congenital varicella syndrome. It includes scars, defects of muscle and bone, malformed and paralyzed limbs, small head size, blindness, seizures, and intellectual disability.TORCH Syndrome refers to infection of a developing foetus or newborn by any of a group of infectious agents. “TORCH” is an acronym meaning (T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.Infection with any of these agents may cause a constellation of similar symptoms in affected newborns. These may include fever; difficulties feeding; small areas of bleeding under the skin, causing the appearance of small reddish or purplish spots; enlargement of the liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly); yellowish discoloration of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes (jaundice); hearing impairment; abnormalities of the eyes; and other symptoms and findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia,...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia, and a fever. On her lower limbs, you see a non-blanching purpuric rash. In the department, a lumbar puncture is conducted. What do you think you'll notice on Gram stain:

      Your Answer: Gram negative diplococci

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis and septicaemia are most commonly caused by meningococcal bacteria. The Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria Meningitidis causes meningitis. Gram stain and culture of CSF identify the etiologic organism, N meningitidis. In bacterial meningitis, Gram stain is positive in 70-90% of untreated cases, and culture results are positive in as many as 80% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction. Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about: ...

    Incorrect

    • The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about:

      Your Answer: -90 mV

      Correct Answer: -70 mV

      Explanation:

      In most neurones the resting potential has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response; because the size of the action potential is constant, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. Repolarisation occurs primarily due to K+efflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In the Emergency Department, a 35-year-old woman actively seizing is brought in. She...

    Correct

    • In the Emergency Department, a 35-year-old woman actively seizing is brought in. She is quickly shifted into the resuscitation room and is administered a dose of benzodiazepine. The seizure is quickly terminated. Once the patient is stable, she tells you she is a known case of epilepsy and takes phenytoin to control it. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of phenytoin?

      Your Answer: Sodium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is in the anticonvulsants class of drugs and is used in the management and treatment of the following:1. epilepsy2. generalized tonic-clonic seizures3. complex partial seizures4. status epilepticus. It works by inactivating the voltage-gated sodium channels responsible for increasing the action potential. It is non-specific and targets almost all voltage-gated sodium channel subtypes. More specifically, phenytoin prevents seizures by inhibiting the positive feedback loop that results in neuronal propagation of high-frequency action potentials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?

      Your Answer: Insulin glulisine

      Correct Answer: Isophane insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH): – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin- starts their action in 1 to 4 hours- peaks in 4 to 8 hours – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day- Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)- starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes- peaks in 90 to 120 minutes- duration of action is 6 to 8 hours- taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)- start action in 1 to 2 hours- plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours- Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day. 4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine) – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes- peak in 30 minutes- The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours- generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is...

    Incorrect

    • The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.Auerbach's plexus is located in which layer of the gut wall? 

      Your Answer: Submucosa

      Correct Answer: Muscular layer

      Explanation:

      The Auerbach’s plexus, also known as the myenteric plexus, is a collection of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.In the muscular layer of the wall, it is located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers. It is a linear network of linked neurons that runs the length of the gastrointestinal system. The myenteric plexus generates an increase in gut wall tone and the strength of rhythmical contractions when stimulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?

      Your Answer: The ‘set point’ is a wide range of values within which normal function occurs

      Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors

      Explanation:

      Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism.Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors. The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs.The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system. The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It...

    Incorrect

    • The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of lymphocyte clonal proliferation.Which of the following statements about CLL is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It is more common in women

      Correct Answer: It is most commonly discovered as an incidental finding

      Explanation:

      CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukaemia) is the most common type of chronic lymphoid leukaemia, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60 and 80. It is the most common type of leukaemia in Europe and the United States, but it is less common elsewhere. The CLL tumour cell is a mature B-cell with low immunoglobulin surface expression (IgM or IgD). The average age at diagnosis is 72 years, with only 15% of cases occurring before the age of 50. The male-to-female ratio is about 2:1. Over 80% of cases are identified by the results of a routine blood test, which is usually performed for another reason. Lymphocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and normochromic normocytic anaemia are common laboratory findings. Aspiration of bone marrow reveals up to 95% lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A series...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A series of blood tests done found a very low TSH level and a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is made.What is the commonest cause of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre

      Correct Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism results from an excess of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women, and incidence increases with age.Hyperthyroidism can be subclassified into:Primary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland itself is affectedSecondary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland is stimulated by excessive circulating thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism (estimates are that it causes between 50 and 80% of all cases).Although toxic multinodular goitre, thyroiditis,TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma and drug-induced hyperthyroidism also causes hyperthyroidism, the commonest cause is Graves’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Excretion of lithium may be reduced by thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors thus predisposing to lithium toxicity. Loop diuretics also cause lithium retention but are less likely to result in lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided groin mass. Medical history reveals a previous appendectomy 10 years prior. On physical examination, the mass can be reduced superiorly. Also, the mass extends to the scrotum. The initial diagnosis is a hernia.Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true? 

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 45 - 55%

      Correct Answer: 65 - 70%

      Explanation:

      Of the filtered sodium, about 65% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They only recognise antigen in association with HLA class I molecules.

      Correct Answer: They form the vast majority (about 75%) of the total circulating T-cell population.

      Explanation:

      CD4+ T-cells (Helper T cells)Recognise antigen only in association with HLA class II molecules (found on antigen presenting cells (APCs) e.g. dendritic cells, B-cells; present exogenous antigens that have been phagocytosed/endocytosed into intracellular vesicles)Form most of the circulating T-cell population (about 75%)Secrete cytokines (e.g. IFN-gamma) which are required for recruitment and activation of other immune cells such as macrophages, T cytotoxic cells and NK cells and for the activation of and production of immunoglobulin from B-cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In patients requiring oxygen, who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, oxygen...

    Correct

    • In patients requiring oxygen, who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, oxygen saturations should be maintained at:

      Your Answer: 88 - 92%

      Explanation:

      A lower target of 88 – 92% oxygen saturation is indicated for patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure e.g. patients with COPD. Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be given using a controlled concentration of 28% or less, titrated towards the SpO2 of 88 – 92%. The aim is to provide the patient with enough oxygen to achieve an acceptable arterial oxygen tension without worsening carbon dioxide retention and respiratory acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed....

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed. You suspect the bleeding is coming from Little's area based on your examination. Which of the blood vessels listed below is most likely to be involved:

      Your Answer: Sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries

      Explanation:

      The Kiesselbach plexus is a vascular network formed by five arteries that supply oxygenated blood to the nasal septum, which refers to the wall separating the right and left sides of the nose. The five arteries that form the Kiesselbach plexus: the sphenopalatine artery, which branches from the maxillary artery originating behind the jawbone; the anterior ethmoidal artery, which branches from the ophthalmic artery behind the eye; the posterior ethmoidal artery, which also branches from the ophthalmic artery; the septal branch of the superior labial artery, which is a branch of the facial artery supplying blood to all of the superficial features of the face; and finally, the greater palatine artery, which is a terminal branch of the maxillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a poor response and you administer another nebuliser with ipratropium bromide added on.Which statement about ipratropium bromide is true?

      Your Answer: It is a muscarinic agonist

      Correct Answer: It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug. It is used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It provides short-term relief in chronic asthma. Short-acting β2agonists are preferred and act more quickly.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists. It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in patients that are susceptible. First-line treatment for moderate asthma attacks is short-acting β2agonists.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) be added to β2agonist treatment in patients with a poor initial response to β2agonist therapy or with acute severe or life-threatening asthma.Its duration of action is 3-6 hours, maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use, and bronchodilation can be maintained with three times per day dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old female has a past medical history of diverticular disease. She now...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female has a past medical history of diverticular disease. She now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, after administering this treatment, the patient develops a side-effect to the medication. What side-effect of using hyoscine butyl bromide is she MOST likely to develop out of the following?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.It has the following side-effects:1. Constipation2. Dizziness3. Drowsiness4. Dry mouth5. Dyspepsia6. Flushing7. Headache8. Nausea and vomiting9. Palpitations10. Skin reactions11. Tachycardia12. Urinary disorders13. Disorders of vision

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/5) 60%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Basic Cellular (0/2) 0%
Physiology (3/9) 33%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (7/10) 70%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (1/4) 25%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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