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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care Clinic with his daughter. He also has a history of mild dementia, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes furosemide, lisinopril, amitriptyline, aspirin, metoprolol, olanzapine and simvastatin. He lives by himself in a house in which he has lived for 30 years and has help with all activities of daily living. On examination, he appears frail, has mild bruising over both knees from recent falls and has reduced proximal lower-extremity muscle strength.
      Which of the following interventions will decrease his risk of falling in the future?

      Your Answer: Balance and gait training physical exercises

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Interventions to Reduce Falls in the Elderly

      Balance and gait training exercises are effective interventions to reduce falls in the elderly. On the other hand, continuing olanzapine and commencing donepezil have not been proven to reduce the risk of falls. Diuretics, such as furosemide, can increase the likelihood of falls, so stopping them is recommended. Additionally, amitriptyline has anticholinergic side-effects that can lead to confusion and falls, so discontinuing it is a quick and potentially effective intervention. Overall, a multifactorial approach that includes balance and gait training, medication review, and fall risk assessment is the most appropriate strategy to reduce falls in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning in a lake. He was a swimmer who got into trouble and was underwater for approximately 10 minutes before being rescued. He was found unresponsive and not breathing, and bystanders immediately started performing CPR while waiting for emergency services. Upon arrival at the ICU, he is intubated and ventilated, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, oxygen saturations 85%, and temperature 33.2 °C.
      Under what circumstances is extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) considered as a treatment option for drowning patients?

      Your Answer: Haemodynamic instability

      Correct Answer: Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for Drowning Patients

      Drowning can lead to respiratory compromise and persistent hypothermia, which may require advanced medical intervention. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a treatment option that can be considered for selected patients who have drowned. However, it is important to understand the indications for ECMO and when it may not be appropriate.

      ECMO may be considered in cases where conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation have failed to improve respiratory function. Additionally, there should be a reasonable probability of the patient recovering neurological function. Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning is another indication for ECMO.

      On the other hand, altered level of consciousness alone is not an indication for ECMO. Patients who respond well to conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation may not require ECMO. Similarly, haemodynamic instability can be managed with inotropes and fluids, and ECMO should only be considered for patients who are resistant to conventional organ support.

      It is important to note that ECMO has a high complication rate, with a 15% risk of bleeding. Therefore, it should only be used in selected cases where the potential benefits outweigh the risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)

      Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 150 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im

      Correct Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im

      Explanation:

      Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.

      For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
      Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs

      A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.

      If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.

      Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.

      Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.

      Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 8 - Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
      You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
      What is the most appropriate next management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation

      Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.

      In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.

      It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.

      It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.

      Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 10 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/4) 25%
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