00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      While the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer, it has been found to provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer. In fact, studies have shown that the pill can actually decrease the risk of ovarian cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his persistent eczematous rashes, pruritus, loose stools and colic symptoms for a few weeks. The mother is uncertain about the frequency of occurrence but reports that it is happening daily. Despite using emollients, there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-IgE-Mediated Cows’ Milk Protein Allergy

      When a child presents with a combination of cutaneous and gastrointestinal symptoms, an allergy to cows’ milk protein is the most likely cause. This is especially true for infants who are being weaned onto cows’ milk, as in this case. However, it’s important to note that this type of allergy is often confused with lactose intolerance, which is a different condition altogether.

      One key indicator that this is a non-IgE-mediated allergy is the presence of an eczematous rash rather than an immediate reaction following ingestion. This is in contrast to an IgE-mediated reaction, which would result in an urticarial rash and occur immediately after milk was ingested.

      It’s also worth noting that this is not likely to be eczema, as the symptoms have not improved with emollients and there are accompanying gastrointestinal symptoms. Similarly, a peanut allergy can be ruled out as the symptoms do not fit the diagnosis of an IgE-mediated reaction.

      Overall, understanding the nuances of non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman contacts the clinic to discuss her cervical screening outcome. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman contacts the clinic to discuss her cervical screening outcome. She had a positive result for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) during her last screening 18 months ago, but her cytology was normal. This time, her cytology is normal again, but she has tested positive for hrHPV once more. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer to colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat in 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cervical cancer screening now includes testing all samples for hrHPV. If the result is positive, cytology is performed. If the cytology is normal, the test is repeated after 12 months.

      Upon repeat testing, if the result is now negative for hrHPV, the patient can resume normal recall. However, if the result is still positive for hrHPV and the cytology is normal, another repeat test should be done after 12 months. This applies to the patient in the given scenario.

      If the second repeat test at 24 months is negative for hrHPV, the patient can return to normal recall. However, if the result is positive for hrHPV, they should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP...

    Correct

    • A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP clinic upon moving to a different city. The clinic checks his immunization records and sends him an invite to get vaccinated. What vaccination should he get if he hasn't received it before?

      Your Answer: Men ACWY

      Explanation:

      The Meningitis ACWY vaccine is being gradually introduced and is recommended for all children during their 9th or 10th year of school. Instead of the Men C booster, they should receive this vaccination. The catch-up program is currently targeting individuals under the age of 25 who are starting university for the first time. It is recommended that they receive the vaccine a few weeks before beginning their studies.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
      Right kidney 10.3 cm
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues

      Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.

      Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.

      IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.

      Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.

      White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.

      In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man who takes bendroflumethiazide for hypertension is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who takes bendroflumethiazide for hypertension is brought to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, his blood work shows the following:
      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 2.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 56 µmol/l
      Glucose 4.3 mmol/l
      What ECG feature is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: Short PR interval

      Correct Answer: U waves

      Explanation:

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are in the emergency department assessing a 68-year-old man who has arrived...

    Incorrect

    • You are in the emergency department assessing a 68-year-old man who has arrived with a fractured femur. He is currently taking anticoagulants for his atrial fibrillation and you have been requested to reverse the anticoagulation to prepare him for surgery. Can you match the correct anticoagulant with its corresponding reversal agent?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban - Idarucizumab

      Correct Answer: Dabigatran - Idarucizumab

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin.
      Idarucizumab is the antidote for dabigatran.
      Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.

      Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.

      There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.

      In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite regular use of emollient creams. On examination, the child has dry, scaly skin on the flexor surfaces of her arms and legs without any signs of infection or weeping. What is the most suitable next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Continue using emollients and start using Dermovate (Clobetasol propionate) ointment to be applied twice a day

      Correct Answer: Continue using emollients and use hydrocortisone 1% ointment to be applied thinly twice a day

      Explanation:

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days,...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days, she experiences a prodromal illness with symptoms of sore throat, malaise, and conjunctivitis. She then develops a rash that initially presents as erythematous macules on her torso and progresses to blisters, covering less than 10% of her body surface area. Additionally, she has painful ulcers in her mouth, stomatitis, and worsening conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that is characterized by a rash that affects a small area of the body or the entire body surface. It can be caused by drugs or other factors. The exact cause of this condition is unknown. The rash typically appears on the hands and feet and is often raised. In some cases, the rash may also affect the mucous membranes. This is known as the major form of erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects both the skin and mucosa. It is usually caused by a drug reaction and is considered a separate entity from erythema multiforme. Common causes of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills. The rash associated with this syndrome is typically maculopapular with target lesions, which may develop into vesicles or bullae. A positive Nikolsky sign is observed in erythematous areas, where blisters and erosions appear when the skin is gently rubbed. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur. Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old female patient complains of various symptoms that have persisted for the...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old female patient complains of various symptoms that have persisted for the last four months. These symptoms include weight gain, especially around the abdomen, with noticeable purplish stretch marks, thin skin, and easy bruising. She has also been experiencing increased swelling in her ankles and a low mood. As part of the diagnostic process, a series of laboratory tests are conducted.
      What electrolyte abnormality is anticipated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Cushing’s syndrome, which is characterized by an excess of cortisol. This can be caused by exogenous glucocorticoid therapy, autonomous overproduction by the adrenal glands, or increased production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. High levels of cortisol can mimic the effects of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium and water retention and increased potassium excretion, resulting in hypokalemia. The increased resorption of bicarbonate in the tubules due to potassium depletion causes metabolic alkalosis. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor causes a loss of potassium. Hyperkalemic respiratory alkalosis is also not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor leads to potassium excretion. Additionally, any acid-base disturbance in Cushing’s syndrome is likely to be metabolically mediated rather than respiratory. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because the concomitant loss of potassium and reabsorption of bicarbonate causes metabolic alkalosis.

      Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.

      General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.

      The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.

      To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.

      Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.

      On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.

      A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A newly qualified nurse in her 50s at the local hospital undergoes vaccination...

    Correct

    • A newly qualified nurse in her 50s at the local hospital undergoes vaccination against hepatitis B. The following results are obtained three months after completion of the primary course:

      Result Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml

      Reference An antibody level of >100 mIU/ml indicates a good immune response with protective immunity

      What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Give one further dose of hepatitis B vaccine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a type of virus that contains double-stranded DNA and is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for this virus is between 6 to 20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of this infection include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      To prevent hepatitis B, children born in the UK are now vaccinated as part of the routine immunization schedule. At-risk groups who should also be vaccinated include healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. However, around 10-15% of adults may fail to respond or respond poorly to the vaccine.

      Testing for anti-HBs is only recommended for those at risk of occupational exposure and patients with chronic kidney disease. The interpretation of anti-HBs levels is as follows: an anti-HBs level of >100 indicates an adequate response, 10-100 indicates a suboptimal response, and <10 indicates a non-responder. Management of hepatitis B includes the use of pegylated interferon-alpha, which reduces viral replication in up to 30% of chronic carriers. Other antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine are also used to suppress viral replication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
      Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications

      Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:

      Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.

      Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.

      Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.

      Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.

      Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She has a history of depression and takes citalopram, smokes 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. During ileocolonoscopy, Crohn's disease is diagnosed, and she is treated with glucocorticoid therapy. What is the most crucial step to decrease the likelihood of future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of non-melanocytic skin carcinoma, typically found in sun-exposed areas of the skin such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. Symptoms of basal cell carcinomas include a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges, and crusted edges. Pigmentation is not a predominant feature, but bleeding may occur. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden changes in size should be referred to a dermatologist for further assessment and investigation. Diagnosis is confirmed with a biopsy, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. Recurrence is possible, but basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and admits to a high-sugar diet and minimal exercise.
      Which of the following non-pharmacological interventions will be most helpful in reducing her risk for a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of Vascular Events: Lifestyle Interventions

      Smoking, high salt intake, poor diet, lack of exercise, and obesity are all risk factors for vascular events such as heart attacks and strokes. However, making lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of these events.

      Stopping smoking is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention, as it reduces the risk of heart disease by 2-3 times compared to those who continue to smoke.

      Reducing salt intake to 3-6 g/day can also help, as both high and low salt intake can increase the risk of vascular events.

      Improving diet by controlling calorie intake can lead to weight loss, improved blood sugar control, and better lipid profiles.

      Regular exercise, such as 30 minutes of activity five times a week, can lower the risk of vascular events by 30%.

      Finally, weight reduction is important, as obesity increases the risk of heart attacks and strokes at a younger age and can lead to higher mortality rates.

      Overall, making these lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of vascular events and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is currently receiving treatment with a salbutamol inhaler as needed and beclometasone inhaler 100mcg twice daily. However, he frequently requires salbutamol for exacerbations and experiences a nighttime cough.
      In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Trial of a long-acting beta-agonist

      Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor after coming back from a weekend getaway....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor after coming back from a weekend getaway. She explains that she left her combined oral contraceptive pills behind, resulting in her missing the pill for the past 2 days. She has not engaged in any sexual activity during this period and is currently in the third week of her pill pack.
      What would be the most appropriate guidance to provide?

      Your Answer: Take an active pill and continue with the upcoming pill-free interval

      Correct Answer: Take an active pill and omit the upcoming pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) are missed in week three, the woman should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. It is important to note that contraceptive protection may be reduced during this time. Seeking emergency contraception is not necessary if there has been no unprotected sexual intercourse during the period of missed pills. Simply taking an active pill and continuing with the upcoming pill-free interval is not sufficient as the woman has likely lost contraceptive protection during the missed pill days. Taking an active pill as soon as possible without exercising caution is also not recommended as the woman may have reduced contraceptive protection.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis, and how does it affect patients of different ages?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

      In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
      Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
      On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 178 µmol/l
      (bloods carried out one year
      previously showed a creatinine
      of 76) 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.

      Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.

      Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.

      In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

      Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.

      Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.

      Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.

      Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.

      Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.

      Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for observation

      Correct Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care

      Explanation:

      Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.

      Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.

      During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?

      Your Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

      Explanation:

      A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.

      Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis

      Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.

      Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old male patient has a home visit from his general practitioner for...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient has a home visit from his general practitioner for follow-up after sustaining fractured neck of femur slipping on ice. He reports to feel well in himself and is progressing with the rehabilitation programme advised to him at discharge and is not reliant on analgesia any longer. He had no previous medical or surgical history prior to the fall. The patient would like some advice regarding preventing future fractures.

      Which, of the options below, is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Advise on healthy diet containing calcium-rich foods

      Correct Answer: Prescription of alendronate

      Explanation:

      In patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture, alendronate should be initiated without delay, even in the absence of a DEXA scan. This patient meets the NICE criteria for bisphosphonate treatment, and while a calcium-rich diet and supplementation may be helpful, they are not sufficient for managing osteoporosis. Zoledronic acid may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, but it should not be the first-line treatment.

      Managing Osteoporosis in Patients with Fragility Fracture

      The management of patients with fragility fractures depends on their age. For patients aged 75 years and above, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, which is an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      On the other hand, for patients below 75 years old, a DEXA scan should be arranged to determine their ongoing fracture risk. The results of the scan can be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine the appropriate management plan. For instance, if a 79-year-old woman sustains a Colles’ fracture, she is presumed to have osteoporosis and should be started on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without a DEXA scan.

      In summary, managing osteoporosis in patients with fragility fractures requires age consideration and appropriate assessment to determine the best management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 15 years but now needs to drink more to feel satisfied as well as to avoid being anxious. She works as a teacher and gave up cycling five years ago at the insistence of her husband. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of her mental state reveals episodes of anxiety. She no longer socialises with friends.

      How is her behaviour best categorised?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Alcohol dependence is a serious condition characterized by a strong compulsion to drink, withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. This vignette illustrates a classic scenario of alcohol dependence, with features of tolerance, withdrawals, neglect of other pleasures, and low mood associated with heavy chronic alcohol consumption. While depression can be a symptom of alcohol dependence, it is not the primary diagnosis.

      The term alcohol abuse is being replaced by alcohol-use disorder or harmful drinking to describe patterns of alcohol use that cause physical or mental health damage. In this vignette, the woman likely has harmful use of alcohol, but the overall picture points to a diagnosis of alcohol dependence.

      Withdrawal symptoms are a common feature of alcohol dependence, and the woman in this vignette would likely experience them if she suddenly stopped drinking. Social withdrawal is also an indicator of alcohol dependence, but it does not explain the entire pattern of symptoms and behavior presented.

      A useful screening test for alcohol-use disorders is the CAGE questionnaire, which asks about cutting down, annoyance from others, guilt, and needing a drink first thing in the morning. Answering yes to two or more questions may indicate the presence of an alcohol-use disorder. Other screening tools include the FAST and AUDIT tests, which can be administered quickly in busy medical settings.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and screening tools for alcohol dependence is crucial for early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (0/2) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (2/3) 67%
Reproductive Medicine (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Passmed