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  • Question 1 - An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jegher syndrome is associated with malignant transformation in the gastrointestinal tract

      Correct Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      26.8
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  • Question 3 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Correct

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis. He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.Serum ceruloplasminWilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream; therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:- Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.- Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.- Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly; it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      43.6
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  • Question 5 - A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.7
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  • Question 6 - A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Sweat chloride test

      Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      71.1
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  • Question 7 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Correct

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      31.9
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  • Question 8 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      104.3
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  • Question 9 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endomysial Antibodies

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      34.9
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  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Fluid replacement

      Explanation:

      Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.4
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there is more than one child in a family with gastrointestinal mucosal ulceration

      Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults; however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18.8
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  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6-8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      34.2
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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6-9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      979.1
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  • Question 15 - The father of a 3 month old baby presents to the child health...

    Incorrect

    • The father of a 3 month old baby presents to the child health clinic complaining that his child passes only one hard stool a day. He has tried to bicycle his legs and massage his abdomen but has not been successful. The baby seems to be growing well, and nothing of concern was found on clinical examination. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Advise him to encourage breast-feeding

      Correct Answer: Advise extra water in between feeds

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines, the frequency of stool passage is considered constipation when two or more of the following findings are present: Fewer than 3 stools a week, large hard stools, stools that resemble rabbit droppings; symptoms associated with defecation including distress, bleeding or straining; a history of previous episodes of a precious/current anal fissure. The child in the scenario fails to meet the criteria, and has no evidence of impacted faeces on examination. The best course of action is to encourage the parents to give the child more water to prevent dehydration, and feed the child a fibre rich diet including fruits, vegetables and high fibre bread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      65.4
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  • Question 16 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Glossitis

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.9
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      26.8
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  • Question 18 - An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but...

    Correct

    • An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      62.8
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?

      Your Answer: Vibrio vulnificus

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      64.8
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  • Question 20 - A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI symptoms whenever she eats cauliflower. Her mother is concerned that she may be allergic, and has kept a food diary and a record of her symptoms. Which of these is LEAST likely to be associated with food allergies?

      Your Answer: Pallor

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition in which there is an increased red cell mass and increasing blood viscosity, which decreases its ability to flow. It is not associated with food allergies, but is fundamentally caused by either an overproduction of red blood cells, or a reduction in the volume of plasma. Abdominal pain, constipation, loose and frequent stools, and pallor are all non IGE mediated symptoms of food allergy according to NICE guidelines in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      17
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  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?

      Your Answer: HR > 90/min

      Correct Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs

      Explanation:

      Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      36
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  • Question 24 - A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?

      Your Answer: Suppositories to relieve constipation

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      72.2
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  • Question 25 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn't passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10
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  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old boy is identified as having a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is identified as having a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine. It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitellointestinal duct) and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa.Rule of 2’s- occurs in 2% of the population- it is located 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal valve- it is 2 inches long- it is 2 times more common in men- there are 2 tissue types involvedIt is typically asymptomatic. Symptomatic presentation indicates inflammation of the diverticulum. The symptoms include:- Abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis- Rectal bleeding- Intestinal obstruction: secondary to an omphalomesenteric band (most commonly), volvulus and intussusceptionManagement:Surgical removal if the neck of the diverticulum is narrow or symptomatic. Surgical options are excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.3
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 28 - A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?

      Your Answer: Exchange transfusion

      Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.'...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's disease

      Explanation:

      People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 30 - A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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