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Question 1
Incorrect
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Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?
Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine with a plasma osmolality of 280 mmol/kg at the end of the period of water deprivation
Correct Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of pins and needles in the lower limbs, and progressive walking difficulties. She states she had diarrhoea 1 week ago. On examination, there is a loss of pinprick sensation noted to the lower limbs from mid-thigh distally and in the upper limbs from MCP joints distally. There is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, noted at 3/5, and knee flexion and extension weakness, noted at 4/5 bilaterally. Power in upper and lower limbs is otherwise normal. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni). Characteristic features include progressive weakness of all four limbs, and it is classically ascending, affecting the lower extremities first. Sensory symptoms tend to be mild.
Functional neurological syndrome can be discounted due to presence of hard neurological signs. Multiple sclerosis can be excluded because of the presence of lower motor neuron signs and absence of upper motor neuron signs. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is the chronic form of Guillain-Barre syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?
Your Answer: Anticardiolipin antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies
Explanation:Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 74-year-old retired judge who is known to have Alzheimer’s disease is examined in clinic. His latest Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) score is 18 out of 30. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Supportive care + donepezil
Explanation:NICE now recommends the three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine) as options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine is reserved for patients with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady has been admitted to the stroke ward following a sudden onset of dizziness and visual disturbances, which started yesterday morning. She initially thought she was just dehydrated, however, later realised she was unable to read her own shopping list. On the ward rounds, the consultant examines her and finds she is indeed unable to read. She is, however, able to write. When she writes a sentence it makes perfect sense, although she is again unable to read it out. She has no problems with her speech and is able to converse normally. She has no motor focal neurological deficit. The consultant asks you where the lesion is likely to be?
Your Answer: Broca's area
Correct Answer: Corpus callosum
Explanation:The patient presents with sudden onset of alexia (the inability to read) WITHOUT agraphia (inability to write) which is consistent with lesions of the corpus callosum where there is a disconnect syndrome and the patient’s language and visual centres are actually in tact, but are unable to communicate between hemispheres. In this case, the damage due to the stroke is most likely in the left visual cortex, leaving visual processing to the intact right hemisphere which unfortunately cannot communicate the information to the language centres (Broca and Wernicke’s) in the left hemisphere, hence the alexia. Alternatively, the speech and writing are unaffected as the language centres can still communicate with the primary motor cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency
Explanation:Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs. Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?
Your Answer: Coproporphyrin
Explanation:Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).
For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.
Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
– Hirsutism
– Infertility
– Obesity and metabolic syndrome
– Diabetes
– Obstructive sleep apnoeaAndrogen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.
Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride. The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?
Your Answer: Dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.
Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below: (Anatomical site vs Oxygen saturation (%)vs Pressure (mmHg)) Superior vena cava: 73 ,–. Right atrium: 71, 6. Right ventricle: 72, –. Pulmonary artery: 86, 53/13. PCWP: –, 15. Left ventricle: 97, 111/10. Aorta: 96, 128/61. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 59-year-old scientist is referred to you with a 2-year history of ascending lower limb numbness and, more recently, foot drop. In the last 6 months he has also developed numbness in his fingers. He has a distal reduction to pinprick and relatively preserved muscle power, except for ankle dorsiflexion and hyporeflexia in his legs. The GP has already organised nerve conduction studies and the report is sent along with the patient. Which of the following would be suggestive of an axonal neuropathy?
Your Answer: Reduced compound muscle action potential amplitude
Explanation:Reduced conduction velocity is associated with demyelinating neuropathies. An abnormally slow response is associated with very proximal disease, i.e. radiculopathies. Delayed P100 latency is a feature of performing visual evoked potentials in those with optic nerve disease. Conduction block is usually associated with certain types of demyelinating neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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Choose the correct statement regarding leptin:
Your Answer: Is produced mainly by the hypothalamus
Explanation:Leptin, a 167–amino acid hormone, was discovered in 1994 and is secreted mainly by adipocytes. Plasma leptin levels are significantly correlated with body mass index (BMI) and the total amount of body fat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?
Your Answer: Vivax malaria
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?
Your Answer: Low calcium diet
Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake
Explanation:NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer: It is found in patients with a small pericardial effusion
Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye. What is the most appropriate next step of management?
Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral
Correct Answer: Plasmapheresis
Explanation:The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.
The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast, with metastases detectable in the lower thoracic vertebrae and the left lung. Before the initiation of treatment of this patient with trastuzumab, which is the most important investigation to perform?
Your Answer: Pulmonary function tests
Correct Answer: Echo
Explanation:Before the initiation of trastuzumab, an echocardiography is a must to rule out any pre-existing cardiac abnormalities as trastuzumab is cardiotoxic.
Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.
Adverse effects include:
Flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common.
Cardiotoxicity:
– Risk increases when anthracyclines are used concomitantly.
– Trastuzumab-induced cardiac dysfunctions are regarded as less severe and largely reversible because primary cardiomyocyte do not show ultrastructure changes unlike those associated with anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity.
– Primary myocyte injury does not occur in patients who were treated with trastuzumab. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?
Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: Bezafibrate
Explanation:Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.
Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.
Pharmacological effects:
– Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.
– Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.
– Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:
– Hypersensitivity
– Primary biliary cirrhosis
– Pre-existing gallbladder disease
– Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy
– Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.
Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion
Explanation:Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.
The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.
Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.
The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
HSP is not an infectious disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity
Explanation:The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.
Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.
Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.
Features of toxicity
Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
Hyperreflexia
Acute confusion
Seizure
ComaManagement
Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An iv-drug abuser sustains an open head injury and is admitted overnight for observation. The next morning she is ok and is discharged. A week later she is re-admitted with fluctuating hard neurological signs. Blood results show neutrophilia and raised C-reactive protein (CRP). Which of the following is the best initial treatment step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast
Explanation:Increased WBC count and CRP suggest infection. But with the fluctuating hard neurological signs, there is suspicion of the presence of a cerebral mass, which is an indication for requesting for a CT scan with contrast, to rule out an abscess or haematoma. The lumbar puncture can be considered after the CT scan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Urine sodium 2 mmol/L, Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
– In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
– In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of 40 x 500mg paracetamol tablets and 400ml of vodka. This is her fourth attendance with an overdose over the past 3 years. She is also known to the local police after an episode of reckless driving/road rage. On arrival, she is tearful and upset. Vital signs and general physical examination are normal apart from evidence of cutting on her arms. She is given activated charcoal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The given clinical scenario is highly suggestive of a borderline personality disorder.
Borderline personality disorder is marked out by instability in moods, behaviour, and relationships. The diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of at least 5 of the following symptoms;
1) Extreme reactions including panic, depression, rage, or frantic actions to abandonment, whether real or perceived
2) A pattern of intense and stormy relationships with family, friends, and loved ones, often veering from extreme closeness and love to extreme dislike or anger
3) Distorted and unstable self-image or sense of self, which can result in sudden changes in feelings, opinions, values, or plans and goals for the future (such as school or career choices)
4) Impulsive and often dangerous behaviours, such as spending sprees, unsafe sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, and binge eating
5) Recurring suicidal behaviours or threats or self-harming behaviour, such as cutting, intense and highly changeable moods, with each episode lasting from a few hours to a few days
6) Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom
7) Inappropriate, intense anger or problems controlling anger
8) Having stress-related paranoid thoughts or severe dissociative symptoms, such as feeling cut off from oneself, observing oneself from outside the body, or losing touch with reality.Other options:
There are no features consistent with endogenous depression, such as early morning wakening or loss of appetite.
There are also no features consistent with hypomania such as pressure of speech, a flight of ideas, or over-exuberant behaviour.
The lack of history of drug abuse rules out drug-induced psychosis.
An anti-social personality disorder is characterized by a failure to conform to social norms and repeated lawbreaking. There is consistent irresponsibility, impulsivity, and disregard for both their safety and that of others. This is not the case in the given scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: t(8;14)
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14).
Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.
Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
1. t(9;22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia
2. t(15;17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
3. t(14;18)—Follicular Lymphoma
4. t(11;14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female is admitted to the E.D complaining of severe abdominal pain. On examination, she is seen trembling and rolling around the trolley. She has previously been investigated for abdominal pain and no cause has been found. She states that she will commit suicide unless she is given morphine for the pain. Which condition is this is an example of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Malingering is not considered a mental illness. In the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), malingering receives a V code as one of the other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention. The DSM-5 describes malingering as the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological problems. Motivation for malingering is usually external (e.g., avoiding military duty or work, obtaining financial compensation, evading criminal prosecution, or obtaining drugs).
Malingering should be strongly suspected if any combination of the following factors is noted to be present: (1) medicolegal context of presentation; (2) marked discrepancy between the person’s claimed stress or disability and the objective findings; (3) lack of cooperation during the diagnostic evaluation and in complying with the prescribed treatment regimen; and (4) the presence in the patient of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD).
This patient is be pretending to be sick in order to get morphine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
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A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave
Explanation:The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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