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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is seeking advice from you. Her younger sister has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is seeking advice from you. Her younger sister has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox and she is concerned about her own health as she is currently 16 weeks pregnant. The patient lives with her sister and spends a significant amount of time with her every day. At present, she is feeling well and has not shown any signs of infection or rashes. What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: If she doesn't think she has had Chickenpox previously blood should be taken to check her immunity and guide management.

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and Pregnancy

      Chickenpox is a common illness that can affect pregnant women. It has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and those affected are infectious for two days before the rash appears.

      If the pregnant woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, there is no risk to the developing fetus. However, if there is uncertainty about past exposure, a blood test can be done to check for immunity.

      If the test detects specific IgG, it confirms past exposure and the patient can be reassured. If not, VZ-immunoglobulin may be administered within 10 days from exposure to prevent infection.

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  • Question 2 - You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
    She has had three miscarriages in the...

    Correct

    • You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
      She has had three miscarriages in the last 18 months and has been told she has antiphospholipid syndrome. She says she was told that she would need treatment early in any future pregnancy and she has now had a positive pregnancy test.
      What is the treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Low dose heparin + low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Medication Protocol for Early Pregnancy

      As soon as a pregnancy test comes back positive, it is recommended to prescribe aspirin 75 mg. This medication can help prevent blood clots and other complications during pregnancy. Once foetal heart activity is detected on an ultrasound scan, low dose self-administered subcutaneous heparin should be started. This medication can also help prevent blood clots and is especially important for women who have a history of blood clots or other risk factors. It is important to follow this medication protocol to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing foetus.

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  • Question 3 - When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a...

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    • When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a clinician should be fairly certain that she is not pregnant.

      Which of the following statements would allow a health professional to be reasonably certain that a teenage girl is not currently pregnant?

      Your Answer: She is within the first seven days of the onset of a normal menstrual period

      Correct Answer: She is eight weeks postpartum and bottle feeding

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Exclusion of Pregnancy

      Health professionals can confidently exclude pregnancy in women if certain criteria are met. These include not having had intercourse since the last normal menstrual period, consistent use of reliable contraception, being within the first seven days of a normal menstrual period, being within four weeks postpartum for non-lactating women, being within the first seven days post-abortion or miscarriage, or being fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than six months postpartum.

      While a pregnancy test can provide additional confirmation, it should only be carried out at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. If a woman is at risk of pregnancy due to recent unprotected intercourse, a pregnancy test should be considered within the first seven days. By following these guidelines, health professionals can accurately exclude pregnancy and provide appropriate care for their patients.

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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow...

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    • A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow for which she has used at least 12 sanitary towels daily.

      She has had generally heavy periods but has found that her condition has deteriorated in the last six months.

      Which of the following therapies would be your next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Menorrhagia

      Menorrhagia is a condition where menstrual loss exceeds 80 ml. While cyclic progestins have been used to treat menorrhagia, they have not been adequately tested in randomized controlled trials. On the other hand, tranexamic acid is considered the most effective medical intervention for menorrhagia.

      According to NICE guidelines, if pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate for menorrhagia, hormonal or non-hormonal treatments should be considered in a specific order. The first option is the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, which provides long-term relief for at least 12 months. The second option is tranexamic acid, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or combined oral contraceptives. The third option is norethisterone (15 mg) daily from days 5 to 26 of the menstrual cycle or injected long-acting progestogens.

      If hormonal treatments are not acceptable to the woman, then either tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be used. It is important to note that a randomized trial of high-dose, longer-term cyclic norethisterone compared with a progestin-releasing IUD showed that flow was reduced by 87%. However, the current consensus of opinion favors tranexamic acid as the most effective medical intervention.

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  • Question 5 - A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions

      Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.

      Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.

      Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.

      Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.

      In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman presents to you after experiencing a condom break during intercourse...

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    • A 27-year-old woman presents to you after experiencing a condom break during intercourse with her partner last night. She is currently on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle and reports that she was previously taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but has not had time to obtain a refill since it ran out 2 months ago. She is seeking emergency contraception today and plans to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill as soon as possible.

      What recommendation would you make in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take EllaOne today, start combined pill in 5 days time and use condoms for the next 12 days

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of hormonal contraception may be reduced by EllaOne. To ensure proper contraception, individuals using the pill, patch, or ring should wait 5 days after taking Ulipristal before starting or restarting their contraception. During this period, it is recommended to use barrier methods.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 7 - You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 8 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks gestation. What potential complication is she more likely to experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.

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  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old female presents for contraceptive counseling. She has a history of cystic...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents for contraceptive counseling. She has a history of cystic fibrosis with frequent hospitalizations, and her current FEV1 is 45%. She doesn't smoke, has a normal blood pressure, a BMI of 18 kg/m2, and no personal or family history of VTE. What would be the most effective contraceptive option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Implications of Unintended Pregnancy and Contraceptive Efficacy

      The risk of unintended pregnancy varies among different contraceptive methods. The Progestogen implant has the lowest failure rate at 0.05% in the first year of use, while the COCP has a failure rate of 9%. However, the implications of an unintended pregnancy for an individual patient must be considered when advising on contraception. In this case, the patient’s FEV1 and BMI suggest that the consequences of an unintended pregnancy would be very serious.

      Furthermore, while the COCP may not be a suitable option for this patient due to its high failure rate, her potential risk factors for developing VTE should also be taken into account. Despite having a negative personal and family history, normotension, non-smoking status, and BMI <30 kg/m2, her frequent hospital admissions and indwelling intravenous catheters may increase her risk of developing VTE. Therefore, careful consideration is necessary when selecting a contraceptive method for this patient.

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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of painful urination and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of painful urination and an itchy rash. During examination, a red, tender, vesicular rash is observed on her vulva. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of both white cells and blood. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      The use of gel can provide relief from symptoms. However, the main goal of treatment is to minimize the risk of transmission to the newborn during delivery. This risk is particularly high if the woman experiences primary genital herpes simplex during the last six weeks of pregnancy. In such cases, a caesarean section is the recommended method of delivery.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

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  • Question 12 - A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching....

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    • A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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  • Question 13 - You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.

      Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      Reference Range (female)
      Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
      LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
      FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
      Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
      Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
      SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145

      What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.

      You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.

      Which of the following pieces of information would you give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200

      Explanation:

      Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method

      Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.

      The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.

      It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.

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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of both venous and arterial blood clots, recurrent miscarriage, and low platelet count. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other illnesses, such as systemic lupus erythematosus. When a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome becomes pregnant, there are several potential complications that may arise, including pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, and preterm delivery.

      To manage these risks, low-dose aspirin is typically prescribed as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed through a urine test. Once a fetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound, low molecular weight heparin is added to the treatment plan. This medication is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation. These interventions have been shown to increase the live birth rate by seven-fold. It is important for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a complete molar pregnancy.
      She wants to discuss when she can consider trying to become pregnant again.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least one year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring hCG Levels After Molar Pregnancy

      After a molar pregnancy, it is important to monitor hCG levels to detect any persistent gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that may require treatment. During this monitoring period, women should avoid becoming pregnant as it is difficult to differentiate between hCG levels that are increasing due to a new pregnancy or persistent GTD. The first hCG measurement is taken four weeks after uterine evacuation.

      For complete hydatidiform mole, hCG monitoring is required for six months from the first normal hCG level or six months from evacuation of the uterus if the hCG level normalizes by eight weeks after evacuation. On the other hand, partial molar pregnancy has a lower risk of persistent GTD, and hCG follow-up is only necessary until two consecutive monthly levels are normal.

      If a woman undergoes chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, she should avoid pregnancy for at least one year. It is crucial to monitor hCG levels after molar pregnancy to ensure early detection and treatment of any persistent GTD.

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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhoea.

    On examination she is obese but otherwise normal....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhoea.

      On examination she is obese but otherwise normal.

      Investigations reveal a prolactin of 1500 mU/L (high), a LH of 1.1, FSH 1.2 and oestradiol 1200 pmol/L (high).

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Hormone Levels in a Woman Trying to Conceive

      This young woman has successfully conceived, as evidenced by her high levels of oestradiol and prolactin. If her high prolactin levels were due to a prolactinoma, her oestradiol levels would be low. When hyperprolactinaemia is associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), prolactin levels are typically below 1000 mU/L and oestradiol levels are normal, with an elevated LH:FSH ratio. It is not mentioned whether her TSH levels were tested, but hypothyroidism is usually associated with menorrhagia and doesn’t cause the high prolactin levels seen in this case.

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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.

      The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but doesn't want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family.

      What is the most suitable contraceptive option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.

      It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.

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  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old female contacts you seeking guidance. She missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female contacts you seeking guidance. She missed taking her Microgynon 30 pill yesterday. For the past 14 days, she has been sexually active with her partner. She is currently on her fifth day of a new pill packet and has not missed any other pills.

      What advice would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take the missed pill as soon as possible, no additional measures needed

      Explanation:

      If one COCP pill is missed, the patient should take the last pill as soon as possible, but no additional action is required.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. Her last pill-free break started 20 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago. What is the best course of action to manage her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions and omit the pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two pills are missed during the third week of taking COCP, the patient should finish the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. This will require an additional 7 days of using additional precautions. Emergency contraception is not necessary in this situation unless unprotected intercourse occurred during the first week of taking the pill with the omission of two pills or during the pill-free week. Simply restarting the pill without omitting the pill-free interval or taking additional precautions is not appropriate as it will not provide adequate protection after the episode of unprotected intercourse.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She...

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    • A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.

      What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about her fertility. She has a history of oligomenorrhea and discontinued her use of combined oral contraceptive pills six months ago, but is still experiencing irregular periods. Her BMI is 28 kg/m^2. In addition to recommending weight loss, what is the most effective intervention to improve her chances of becoming pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating infertility in PCOS, clomifene is usually the first choice. Metformin can also be used, but only after anti-oestrogens like clomifene have been tried.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena®...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena® coil she had inserted during her travels in Australia. She wants to know the duration for which it is licensed.

      How long is the IUS licensed for in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      The Jaydess IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena coil. The Mirena coil is licensed for 5 years, while the Kyleena IUS has 19.5mg LNG and is also licensed for 5 years. The copper IUD is licensed for 5 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

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  • Question 24 - A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support

      Explanation:

      Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.

      There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.

      While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.

      For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

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  • Question 25 - Sophie is a 22-year-old woman who doesn't use any form of regular contraception....

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    • Sophie is a 22-year-old woman who doesn't use any form of regular contraception. Last night she had unprotected sexual intercourse. She has taken levonorgestrel 3 hours ago and has vomited twice since.

      During your phone consultation with Sophie, she expresses uncertainty about what steps to take next.

      What is the most crucial advice to provide Sophie regarding her pregnancy risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a second dose of levonorgestrel as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      If a patient vomits within 3 hours of taking levonorgestrel, it is recommended to prescribe a second dose of emergency hormonal contraception to be taken as soon as possible, according to NICE guidelines. Therefore, reassuring Zoe that she is protected from pregnancy is incorrect. It is also not advisable to immediately start Zoe on the COCP, as the most important advice is to take a second dose of emergency contraception. Additionally, Zoe should be offered a range of contraceptive options, including long-acting reversible contraceptives. Suggesting other forms of emergency contraception, such as ulipristal acetate or the IUD, is also incorrect in this situation, as the guidelines specify that a second dose of levonorgestrel should be taken. However, if Zoe experiences persistent vomiting or diarrhea for more than 24 hours after taking emergency hormonal contraception, the IUD may be considered.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding....

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    • A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding. What is the least indicative feature of a hydatidiform mole diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crampy lower abdominal pains

      Explanation:

      A hydatidiform mole is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding. High levels of hCG may cause symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which can mimic thyroid stimulating hormone.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal symptoms. She reports her last period occurred 12 months ago and is experiencing bothersome hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She has no significant medical or surgical history and is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) after a thorough discussion of the risks and benefits.
      After counseling, there are no contraindications to hormonal treatment, and she is eager to start a suitable regimen.
      What is the most appropriate HRT prescription for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous combined HRT

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women

      Women who have had a hysterectomy can use unopposed oestrogens, but those with a uterus must use regimens with both oestrogen and progestogen to avoid the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and potential malignant transformation. Postmenopausal women can use combined continuous regimens, while those still having periods can use cyclical HRT. Urogenital symptoms can be treated with topical oestrogens or non-hormonal vaginal moisturisers. Low dose combined pills may be an option for under 50s, but careful patient selection is necessary due to contraindications and cautions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 28 - An infant is born with an open spina bifida despite adequate folate intake...

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    • An infant is born with an open spina bifida despite adequate folate intake by the mother during her concealed pregnancy. The mother was a psychiatric inpatient for several months with an episode of acute mania.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be associated with this teratogenic effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Medication Use During Pregnancy: Risks and Considerations

      Valproic Acid, Mirtazapine, Haloperidol, Lithium, and Olanzapine are all medications used to treat various mental health conditions. However, when it comes to using these medications during pregnancy, there are important considerations and potential risks to be aware of.

      Valproic Acid, for example, is highly teratogenic and should not be used to treat bipolar disorder during pregnancy. The risk to the fetus outweighs the benefit to the mother, and there are safer alternative mood stabilizers available. Mirtazapine, on the other hand, should be used with caution during pregnancy, and the neonate must be monitored for any withdrawal effects. Haloperidol use during the third trimester has been associated with neonatal extrapyramidal side effects and withdrawal. Lithium is associated with an increased risk of cardiac abnormalities in the fetus, especially if taken during the first trimester. Finally, while there is not a known increased risk of neural tube defects with Olanzapine use during pregnancy, there is a risk of the neonate developing extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal symptoms.

      It is important for pregnant individuals to discuss any medication use with their healthcare provider to weigh the potential risks and benefits and make informed decisions about their treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has a medical history of obesity and migraines without aura. The patient is currently taking orlistat and loratadine. During her visit to your clinic, her body mass index is measured to be 27kg/m² and her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orlistat may reduce effectiveness of oral contraception

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of oral contraception may be reduced by medication that causes diarrhoea or vomiting, such as orlistat or laxatives. However, loratadine doesn’t have an impact on the effectiveness of either the combined oral contraceptive pill or the progesterone-only pill. It’s worth noting that orlistat only affects oral contraception and will not reduce the effectiveness of the contraceptive transdermal patch or injection.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was started on contraception by a colleague six months ago but is now experiencing irregular bleeding and weight gain. She is unsure if the contraceptive is causing her symptoms. The patient has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine. She is a social smoker and has no family history.

      During the examination, her body mass index is 28 kg/m², indicating a weight gain of 4 kg. Her blood pressure is 108/78 mmHg. What type of contraceptive is most likely to have been prescribed to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depo-provera injection

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
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