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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to eye casualty with painless partial vision loss on the left side. Over the past two weeks, she has experienced a temporal headache on the left side with tenderness in the left scalp. Additionally, she has noticed pain in her left jaw when chewing. The patient reports low-grade fever and fatigue. She has no prior medical or ophthalmological history.
What would be the expected findings on fundoscopy, given the probable cause of the vision loss?Your Answer: Tortuous retinal veins with 'flame haemorrhages'
Correct Answer: Swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins
Explanation:The correct fundoscopic appearance for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins. This condition is often seen in patients with temporal arthritis and can cause sudden unilateral vision loss. The patient in this case has classic symptoms of temporal arthritis, including new temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and constitutional symptoms. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is caused by inflammation in the posterior ciliary artery, which leads to occlusion and subsequent ischemia to the head of the optic nerve.
A pale retina with a ‘cherry red’ spot is not the typical fundoscopic appearance for temporal arthritis. This is the typical finding in central retinal artery occlusion, which is not typically inflammatory and is more similar to a stroke. Cupping of the optic disc is also not seen in anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, as this is a typical finding in neuropathy due to glaucoma. Hazy fundus with an absent red reflex is also not related to temporal arthritis, as this is the typical finding in vitreous hemorrhage, which is often caused by bleeding from neovascularization in proliferative diabetic retinopathy, trauma, or retinal detachment.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?
Your Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of swollen hands and feet for the past 3 months. She reports that the symptoms worsen in cold weather and her fingers frequently turn blue. She is now experiencing difficulty making a fist with both hands. Additionally, she has observed thickening of the skin spreading up her arms and thighs over the last month. She also reports a dry cough that started a month ago, accompanied by shortness of breath during physical activity. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse systemic sclerosis
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from systemic sclerosis, which is characterized by the tightening and fibrosis of the skin, commonly known as scleroderma. The presence of a dry cough and involvement of the proximal limbs suggest diffuse systemic sclerosis, which has a poorer prognosis than limited systemic sclerosis (also known as CREST syndrome). Eosinophilic fasciitis, a rare form of systemic sclerosis, is unlikely as it spares the hands and does not present with Raynaud’s phenomenon. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is relatively common, does not typically present with sclerotic features and is likely part of the patient’s wider autoimmune disease.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of intense lower back pain that extends down one of his legs. Despite having a manual job, he denies any history of injury. During the examination, it is noted that he has diminished perianal sensation and anal tone.
What would be considered a late sign in this patient's diagnosis, indicating possible irreversible damage?Your Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome typically manifests as lower back pain, sciatica, and decreased sensation in the perianal area. As the condition progresses, urinary incontinence may develop, which is a concerning late sign associated with irreversible damage. While a positive sciatic stretch test indicates nerve irritation or compression, it does not necessarily indicate spinal cord compression. Reduced perianal sensation is also a red flag, but it typically appears earlier than urinary incontinence. Although tingling in one leg may be caused by sciatic nerve irritation, it is not a specific sign of cauda equina syndrome, particularly if it is unilateral. While assessing anal tone is important, studies have shown that it has low sensitivity and specificity for detecting cauda equina syndrome.
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old office worker visits the doctor complaining of a painful right elbow. He indicates the medial epicondyle of the humerus as the source of pain. Although he cannot recall any previous injury, he reports that the pain worsens when he uses his arm, and it can extend to his forearm. As a result, he has stopped playing tennis. Apart from this, he is healthy and not taking any medications.
Based on the patient's history, the doctor suspects a specific diagnosis. What finding during the examination would be most indicative of this suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist extended and pronated
Correct Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist flexed and pronated
Explanation:Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfers’ elbow, is a condition where the tendons of the wrist flexors become damaged due to repetitive use of these muscles. A patient presenting with pain at the medial epicondyle, such as a golf player, is likely to have this condition. Examination of the patient would reveal worsening symptoms when the wrist is flexed and pronated, as this aggravates the wrist flexor muscles at their common attachment point on the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
If a patient has a fluctuant swelling over the olecranon process, it suggests olecranon bursitis, which is caused by inflammation of the fluid-filled bursa overlying the olecranon process. This condition would present with swelling, pain, and tenderness over the olecranon process, rather than the medial epicondyle.
It is incorrect to assume that worsening symptoms would occur with the wrist extended and pronated or extended and supinated in a patient with medial epicondylitis. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, would cause worsening symptoms when the wrist is extended and supinated, as this aggravates the wrist extensors at their insertion point on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
Understanding Medial Epicondylitis
Medial epicondylitis, commonly referred to as golfer’s elbow, is a condition characterized by pain and tenderness in the medial epicondyle. This area is located on the inner side of the elbow and is responsible for attaching the forearm muscles to the elbow. The pain is often aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, which are movements commonly used in golf swings and other activities that involve repetitive gripping and twisting motions.
In addition to pain and tenderness, individuals with medial epicondylitis may also experience numbness or tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar nerve involvement. This nerve runs along the inner side of the elbow and can become compressed or irritated in cases of medial epicondylitis.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and causes of medial epicondylitis can help individuals take steps to prevent and manage this condition. This may include modifying activities that place strain on the elbow, using proper equipment and technique, and seeking medical treatment if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with weakness and a skin rash on his upper eyelids. He also complains of a cough which has been present for 3 months. He has a 50 pack-year smoking history. On examination he is noted to have symmetrical proximal muscle weakness.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer: Anti-Ro / Anti-La antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of dermatomyositis, and the presence of anti-Jo 1 antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test causes pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region, and he displays weakness on plantar flexion with decreased ankle reflexes. What is the root compression that this patient has experienced?
Your Answer: L4 nerve root compression
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression
Explanation:The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fractured femur. She has had multiple visits in the past few months. During the examination, her teeth are noted to be abnormal and she appears underweight. Additionally, her father expresses concern about her hearing.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:Childhood is the typical time for the manifestation of osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by bone fractures and deformities, blue sclera, and hearing/visual problems.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The mildest form is type 1, which is the most common. Symptoms include fractures from minor trauma, blue sclera, hearing loss due to otosclerosis, and dental abnormalities.
It is important to consider non-accidental injury as a possible diagnosis. Spiral humeral fractures, digital fractures in non-ambulatory children, and bilateral fractures with varying ages are indicative of this. However, this does not explain the hearing and dental issues.
Osteopetrosis is a condition where bones become denser and harder, and it is most prevalent in young adults. It is an autosomal recessive disorder.
McCune-Albright syndrome is a rare genetic condition that causes abnormal bone development, café au lait spots, premature puberty, and thyroid disorders.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of pain in her left middle finger when she tries to bend it. She also experienced it getting 'stuck' once. During examination, a palpable nodule is found at the base of the finger. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Understanding Trigger Finger
Trigger finger is a condition that affects the flexion of the digits, and is believed to be caused by a discrepancy in size between the tendon and pulleys through which they pass. This results in the tendon becoming stuck and unable to move smoothly through the pulley. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, trigger finger is more common in women than men and is associated with conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes mellitus.
The condition typically affects the thumb, middle, or ring finger, and is characterized by stiffness and snapping when extending a flexed digit. A nodule may also be felt at the base of the affected finger. Management of trigger finger often involves steroid injections, which are successful in the majority of patients. A finger splint may be applied afterwards. Surgery is typically reserved for patients who have not responded to steroid injections. While there is some suggestion of a link between trigger finger and repetitive use, evidence to support this is limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her right hand and left wrist. The affected joints are also stiff, erythematosus, and warm to touch. She denies any recent injury to the joints and is otherwise healthy. Upon joint aspirate, the sample appears turbid and yellow with a WBC count of 25,000/mm³ and 70% neutrophils. Viscosity is reduced and polarised light microscopy is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:The joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis typically displays a high count of white blood cells, with a majority being neutrophils. The appearance is usually cloudy and yellow, and there are no crystals present.
In contrast, gout would reveal needle-shaped urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light microscopy. Osteoarthritis would show fewer white blood cells and a lower proportion of neutrophils, with a clear appearance. It is more commonly found in larger weight-bearing joints. Pseudogout would display rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent.
Therefore, the correct answer is rheumatoid arthritis, which is characterised by an elevated white cell count, predominantly neutrophils, and a cloudy appearance.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.
Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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