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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee replacement. He had a history of a heart transplant 10 years back. His resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute. On examination, ECG showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following explains this tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia secondary to tacrolimus

      Correct Answer: Loss of parasympathetic innervation

      Explanation:

      Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.

      The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.

      Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination: Heart rate: 125 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg. On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.

      Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.

      Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.

      Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.

      Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted...

    Incorrect

    • In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted compared to the conventional use of mammography. This test predicts that if the breast cancer is diagnosed at an earlier stage, it could improve the survival rate but the overall results remains constant. This is an example of what kind of bias?

      Your Answer: Length time bias

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically.

      Self Selection or volunteer bias occur when those subjects are selected to participate in the study who are not the representative of the entire target population. those subjects may be from high socio-economic status and practice those activities or lifestyle that improves their health.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC. Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Calcified brachial arteries

      Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?

      Your Answer: Hepatoportal system

      Correct Answer: Kidney

      Explanation:

      Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.

      The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g

      Hepatoportal = 2.2
      Kidney = 6.8
      Brain = 3.7
      Skin = 0.38
      Skeletal muscle = 0.18
      Heart = 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter. His vital readings are: Temperature: 38.1°C. Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg), Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg). Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg, Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg, Cardiac output: 5 L/min, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%. Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance. Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer: 100 dynes·s·cm-5

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through α1 but also β receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak β2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom...

    Incorrect

    • Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%. Which term can be used to describe that?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

      An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

      A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery. Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Incorrect

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator. Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40). Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all €˜non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or €˜caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were €˜capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.

      The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI)....

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI). Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Energy

      Explanation:

      The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
      F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
      F = 1 kg·m/s2

      The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
      J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).

      The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:

      J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
      J/s = kg·m2·s-3

      Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
      Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
      Pa = kg·m-1·s-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patellar or knee jerk reflex.

      Explanation:

      Monosynaptic reflexes is a type of reflex arc providing direct communication between motor and sensory innervation in a muscle. It occurs very quickly as it arises and ends in the same muscle. Examples include: biceps reflex, brachioradialis reflex, extensor digitorum reflex, triceps reflex, Achilles reflex and patellar reflex.

      Polysynaptic reflexes facilitates contraction and inhibition in muscle by providing communication between multiple muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2€“1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.

      The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.

      A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.

      The level of significance is set at p <0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intervertebral foramen

      Explanation:

      The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 21 - The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block

      Explanation:

      The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.

      It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.

      The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.

      Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis. She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent. With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating. Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.3

      Explanation:

      The following is the alveolar gas equation:

      PAO2 = PiO2 ˆ’ PaCO2/R

      Where:

      PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
      PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
      PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
      The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.

      By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:

      PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa ˆ’ 6.3 kPa)
      PiO2 = 19.8

      Substituting:
      PAO2 = 19.8 ˆ’ 10/0.8
      PAO2 = 19.8 ˆ’ 12.5
      PAO2 = 7.3k Pa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 23 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
      The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

      Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
      Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
      Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
      Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
      Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury. The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following: Airway-patent, Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds. Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg. Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain. Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established. The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg

      Explanation:

      These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale.
      Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.

      This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.

      This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.

      There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 26 - Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function. Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:

      The human body is not harmed by it.
      Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
      Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
      Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
      Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.

      The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.

      Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.

      Exogenous filtration markers include the following:

      Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
      Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.

      Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.

      The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 27 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state. Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 28 - A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.

      The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines

      Explanation:

      The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.

      In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.

      A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.

      A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.

      The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart. How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
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