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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
      At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.

      Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.

      Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.

      Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Offer gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic....

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: Trial of Gaviscon

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presented to his GP with bilateral deafness. Rinne’s test was...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presented to his GP with bilateral deafness. Rinne’s test was found to be negative bilaterally. Weber's test was referred to both sides. On examination of his tympanic membrane, Schwartz's sign was visible.
      Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hearing Loss: A Comparison of Otosclerosis, Cholesteatoma, Ménière’s Disease, Otitis Externa, and Otitis Media

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, Ménière’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media. When conducting a differential diagnosis, it is important to consider the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.

      Otosclerosis is a common cause of hearing loss in young adults, typically presenting as unilateral conductive hearing loss that progresses bilaterally. A negative Rinne’s test is indicative of conductive deafness, and a pink tinge on the tympanic membrane (Schwartz’s sign) is a diagnostic indicator for otosclerosis.

      Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, typically presents with unilateral conductive hearing loss and/or ear discharge. Given the patient’s bilateral symptoms and young age, cholesteatoma is less likely to be the cause of her hearing loss.

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. This is not the likely cause of the patient’s conductive hearing loss.

      Otitis externa is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause hearing loss in rare cases due to occlusion of the ear canal from inflammation. Otitis media, on the other hand, is inflammation of the middle ear and is more commonly seen in children. It may present with unilateral conductive deafness, but is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s bilateral symptoms.

      In conclusion, when considering the causes of hearing loss, it is important to take into account the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history. Otosclerosis is the most likely cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults, while cholesteatoma, Ménière’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media may also be potential causes depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: The follicular phase follows menstruation and occurs around day 5 - 13

      Correct Answer: A surge of FSH causes ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation is caused by the LH surge.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?

      Your Answer: Sitagliptin

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on his face resembling a butterfly, joint pain, and overall fatigue. Based on the probable diagnosis, which auto-antibody has the greatest sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Common Autoantibody Tests for Diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body. The diagnosis of SLE can be challenging due to its diverse clinical manifestations and the absence of a specific diagnostic test. However, several autoantibodies have been identified in patients with SLE, and their detection can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Here are some common autoantibody tests used for diagnosing SLE:

      Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): This is the most commonly used screening test for SLE. ANA is present in 98% of patients with SLE, but it can also be positive in other autoimmune and non-autoimmune conditions.

      Anti-citrulline antibodies (anti-CCP): This test has the highest specificity for rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (anti-dsDNA): This test is positive in 70% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-smooth muscle autoantibodies (anti-sm): This test is positive in 25% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Rheumatoid factor: This test is used for investigating rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      In summary, the detection of autoantibodies can be helpful in diagnosing SLE, but the interpretation of the results should be done in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other laboratory tests. ANA remains the best screening test for SLE due to its high sensitivity, but the presence of other autoantibodies can increase the specificity of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant visits you...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant visits you for her initial appointment. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no medical history. She reports feeling well so far. During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 165/100 mmHg. You repeat the measurement twice and observe her blood pressure to be 170/110 and then 160/95 mmHg. You inform her that medication may be necessary to lower her blood pressure. What is the first-line medication for hypertension during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Labetalol is the preferred initial medication for treating hypertension during pregnancy. While methyldopa is an option, it is not recommended as the first choice due to its association with a higher risk of postpartum depression. Ramipril, irbesartan, and bendroflumethiazide should be avoided during pregnancy as they can cause birth defects.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man presents with a complaint of neck and arm pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a complaint of neck and arm pain that has been ongoing for four months. He describes the pain as similar to 'electric shocks' and notes that it worsens when he turns his head. There is no history of trauma or any other apparent cause. The patient is in good health and not taking any medications. During the examination, it is noted that he has reduced sensation on the back of his thumb and middle finger. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C5 radiculopathy

      Correct Answer: C6 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed with helpful mnemonics to remember them.

      Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Flecainide

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval

      The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.

      Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.

      Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.

      β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.

      In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with atrial fibrillation. She is stable with a ventricular rate of 70. Which of the following drug options would be the most suitable for her?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Warfarin, DOACs, Aspirin, Digoxin, Furosemide, and Lidocaine

      Patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 4 require anticoagulation to reduce the risk of a CVA. The two main options are warfarin and DOACs, but the choice depends on other co-morbidities and patient preference. Before starting warfarin, patients should be referred to the Anticoagulation Clinic and screened for contraindications.

      Aspirin has no benefit in atrial fibrillation, and digoxin should only be used for short-term rate control due to evidence of increased mortality with long-term use. Furosemide can help with symptoms and edema in heart failure but does not improve mortality. Lidocaine is only appropriate for ventricular arrhythmias in unstable patients and requires specialist support.

      In summary, the treatment options for atrial fibrillation vary depending on the patient’s individual circumstances and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:

      Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.

      Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.

      Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.

      Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.

      Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery....

    Correct

    • An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
      What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Associated with 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency

      21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that results in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reduces aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels. Patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency may also experience stunted growth and elevated androgens, but hypogonadism is not a feature. Treatment may involve the use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom broke last night. She is not currently using any regular form of contraception and is currently on day 20 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. You have discussed the possibility of an intrauterine device, but she has declined. What would be the most suitable course of action among the available options?

      Your Answer: Stat dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      136.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following antihypertensive agents controls blood pressure by blocking the peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antihypertensive agents controls blood pressure by blocking the peripheral α1 -adrenoceptor?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Antihypertensive Drugs

      Doxazosin is an a1-adrenergic receptor blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle tone, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure.

      Losartan is a selective angiotensin II receptor type 1 antagonist that reduces the end-organ response to angiotensin II, resulting in decreased total peripheral resistance and cardiac venous return.

      Minoxidil is a potassium channel opener that causes vasodilatation mainly in arterial resistance vessels, with significant hypertrichosis as a side effect.

      Methyldopa inhibits dopa decarboxylase, leading to reduced dopaminergic and adrenergic neurotransmission and a modest decrease in blood pressure. It also activates presynaptic central nervous system a2-adrenergic receptors, inhibiting sympathetic nervous system output.

      Clonidine activates presynaptic a2-receptors in the brain stem, decreasing peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure by inhibiting the release of noradrenaline.

      Overall, these antihypertensive drugs work through different mechanisms to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the last 4 weeks. No injury history is reported. The pain is located in the front of the joint and is aggravated when ascending or descending stairs. Physical examination reveals no significant findings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
      Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis

      Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:

      Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.

      Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.

      Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.

      Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a surgeon, four months after switching his antiepileptic medication. Despite being seizure-free, he has gained 5 kg in weight since his last check-up. Which antiepileptic drug is commonly linked to weight gain?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Weight gain can be a side effect of taking sodium valproate.

      Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.

      Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.

      Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.7
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  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.6
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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room by her father. She...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room by her father. She has been lethargic and feverish for the past 2 hours. While waiting to be seen, she becomes unconscious. A physician performs an urgent evaluation while the nurse contacts 911. The child is not breathing, so 5 rescue breaths are administered. As you enter the room, the physician cannot detect a pulse in the brachial or carotid artery. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Start chest compressions/ventilations at a ratio of 15:2

      Explanation:

      The chest compressions to ventilations ratio should be 15:2 when two trained staff members are present.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A female patient with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with enlarged...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with enlarged legs bilaterally from the groin area downwards, along with dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions that Cause Bilateral Oedema: Inferior Vena Cava Obstruction, Hypoalbuminaemia, Deep Venous Thrombosis, Heart Failure, and Hyponatraemia

      Bilateral oedema, or swelling in both legs, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of these is inferior vena cava obstruction, which occurs when a renal mass or thrombus compresses the inferior vena cava, preventing venous drainage of the lower limbs. This obstruction can also cause venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Hypoalbuminaemia, on the other hand, causes a generalised oedema that can be seen in the face, upper and lower limbs, and abdomen. Deep venous thrombosis, which presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected lower limb, can also cause bilateral symptoms if it occurs in the inferior vena cava. Heart failure, which causes bilateral dependent oedema due to fluid overload, is another possible cause of bilateral oedema. Finally, severe hyponatraemia resulting from fluid overload can cause a generalised symmetrical pattern of oedema that affects the upper limbs as well. Treatment for bilateral oedema depends on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      17.4
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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Switch to oxycodone

      Correct Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.1
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
    The urine levels of which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
      The urine levels of which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Tumors and Disorders

      The urinary excretion of certain metabolites can serve as diagnostic markers for various adrenal tumors and disorders. For instance, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Normal individuals excrete only minimal amounts of these substances in the urine. However, in phaeochromocytoma and neuroblastoma, urinary excretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their metabolic products, increases intermittently.

      Similarly, increased urinary excretion of the serotonin metabolite 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, thin skin, and acne. Urinary dehydroepiandrosterone excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia, while urinary pregnanetriol excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

      It is important to note that elevated excretion of these compounds may also occur in other conditions such as coma, dehydration, extreme stress states, medication use, and ingestion of certain foods. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal tumors and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      7.8
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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has been experiencing this for the past two years and reports a normal amount of blood loss. Her periods are regular and there is no abnormal bleeding. She is not sexually active yet. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea involves NSAIDs, which work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, a major contributor to menstrual pain.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible allergic reaction to seafood he ate at a restaurant. He administered his adrenaline autoinjector and received an additional dose of intramuscular adrenaline from the paramedics.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. He has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min and oxygen saturation of 93% on room air.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      For patients with refractory anaphylaxis, which is characterized by persistent respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems despite receiving 2 doses of intramuscular adrenaline, the recommended next step is to start an intravenous adrenaline infusion. Administering further intramuscular adrenaline is not recommended. Intravenous chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are also no longer recommended in the updated guidelines for anaphylaxis management.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      18.9
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  • Question 27 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening painless muscle weakness of six months’ duration. She reports difficulty rising from a chair, climbing stairs, and combing her hair. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in her upper arms and thighs. Her thyroid function tests, full blood count, and glycosylated haemoglobin are normal. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factor (RF) are positive, and her creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions: Differentiating Polymyositis from Other Disorders

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes gradual, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, which is rarely painful. However, other autoimmune conditions can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Here are some key differences:

      Systemic sclerosis: This condition causes abnormal growth of connective tissue, leading to vascular damage and fibrosis. Proximal muscle weakness is not a feature of systemic sclerosis, but patients may experience calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.

      Polymyalgia rheumatica: This inflammatory condition causes bilateral pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, particularly the shoulders and pelvic girdle. However, painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical of polymyalgia rheumatica, and positive RF or ANA are not seen in this condition.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune condition is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. While ANAs and RF may be positive in this condition, proximal myopathy is not a feature.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): This multi-system autoimmune condition usually presents in women of childbearing age with remitting and relapsing symptoms. While ANA antibodies are often positive in SLE, CK is not usually raised, and painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical. The presence of anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies or low complement levels are more specific markers of SLE.

      In summary, while these autoimmune conditions may share some symptoms, careful evaluation can help differentiate between them and lead to appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for his yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for his yearly hypertension check-up. He is currently on a daily dose of ramipril 10 mg and amlodipine 10mg, but his blood pressure readings have been consistently high at an average of 160/110 mmHg. What medication would be the best addition to his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve the poorly controlled hypertension of this patient who is already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, the next step is to add a thiazide-like diuretic. Indapamide is the recommended drug for this purpose, although chlortalidone is also an option. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are not appropriate at this stage of treatment. Combining an angiotensin II receptor blocker with ramipril is not advisable due to the risk of electrolyte imbalance and kidney problems. If the patient has confirmed resistant hypertension, a fourth antihypertensive medication may be added or specialist advice sought. For those with low potassium levels, spironolactone may be considered.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      266.6
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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper abdominal pain on the right side. He admits to drinking a six-pack of beer every night after work. Over the past year, he has lost about 9 kg (1.5 stone) in weight, and his wife says that he often skips meals in favor of alcohol. He has occasional diarrhea, which he describes as greasy and difficult to flush away. Physical examination reveals a lean man with tenderness upon deep palpation in the right upper quadrant. Blood testing reveals mild normochromic/normocytic anaemia and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level raised to twice the upper limit of normal. Amylase and anti-gliadin antibodies are normal. Upper abdominal ultrasound is performed and there is diffuse pancreatic calcification, but nothing else of note.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition where the pancreas undergoes ongoing inflammation, resulting in irreversible changes. The most common symptom is recurring abdominal pain, often in the mid or upper left abdomen, accompanied by weight loss and diarrhea. Imaging tests can reveal inflammation or calcium deposits in the pancreas, and pancreatic calcifications are considered a telltale sign of chronic pancreatitis. Excessive alcohol consumption is the leading cause of this condition, as it can cause blockages in the pancreatic ducts and stimulate inflammation.

      Pancreatic carcinoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. Symptoms are often vague and non-specific, such as fatigue, nausea, and mid-epigastric or back pain. Obstructive jaundice is a common symptom, with elevated levels of bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase. Ultrasound is often used for diagnosis, but it may not reveal the extent of the cancer.

      Acute pancreatitis is characterized by sudden, severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever, tachycardia, and abdominal muscle guarding are also common symptoms. Serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated, and leukocytosis may be present.

      Coeliac disease is a chronic digestive disorder that results in an inability to tolerate gliadin, a component of gluten. Laboratory tests may reveal electrolyte imbalances, malnutrition, and anemia. The most reliable antibodies for confirming coeliac disease are tissue transglutaminase immunoglobulin A, endomysial IgA, and reticulin IgA.

      Recurrent cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed due to gallstones blocking the cystic duct. Symptoms include recurring episodes of biliary colic, but a palpable mass is not always present. Ultrasound may reveal a thickened gallbladder wall, gallstones, or calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      27.6
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  • Question 31 - Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?

      Your Answer: Yoghurt

      Correct Answer: Malted milk biscuits

      Explanation:

      Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.

      To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.8
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  • Question 32 - A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.2
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found to have a urinary tract infection based on a urine dipstick test. Despite being asymptomatic, which antibiotic should she steer clear of during the first trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections in pregnancy should be treated to prevent pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity risk. Erythromycin is not typically used for UTIs and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term. Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      7.7
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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to treatment. She has a medical history of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During her work-up, she is found to have hypercalcemia with a level of 2.8 mmol/l. Her parathyroid hormone (PTH) is slightly elevated above the normal range. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hypercalcaemia with Elevated PTH Levels

      Hypercalcaemia with elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels can be indicative of several conditions. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2A (MEN 2A)
      MEN 2A is caused by a gain in function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The classic triad of MEN 2A is medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and phaeochromocytoma. Patients with MEN 2A may also have treatment-resistant hypertension.

      Marfan Syndrome
      Marfan syndrome is a hereditary disorder of connective tissue. Patients with Marfan syndrome are typically tall and thin with hyperlax joints, recurrent dislocation of the lens of the eye, and cardiovascular anomalies (particularly aortic regurgitation). However, dysfunction of the parathyroid hormone axis is not usually associated with this condition.

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN 1)
      MEN 1 also occurs due to a mutation in the RET gene. However, patients with MEN 1 classically suffer from hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenomas (typically prolactinomas), and pancreatic islet cell tumors, and not the features described in the case.

      Multiple Myeloma
      Multiple myeloma is also associated with hypercalcaemia, but PTH levels would be appropriately low.

      Neurofibromatosis
      Neurofibromatosis is a disorder caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17. It is associated with multiple neural tumors together with a variety of skin, musculoskeletal, and ocular manifestations, but disruption of the parathyroid hormone axis is not a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?

      Your Answer: LFTs at baseline and annually

      Correct Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

      Explanation:

      To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and right eye pain that started 5 hours ago while he was watching a movie in the cinema. He also experienced blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting once. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine with aura

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is identified by symptoms such as eye pain, reduced visual clarity, aggravation with mydriasis (e.g. in a dark cinema), and haloes around lights. It may also cause a general feeling of illness. Migraine with aura is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not involve eye pain. Sudden painless loss of vision is a symptom of vitreous haemorrhage. While optic neuritis can cause eye pain, it typically does not worsen with mydriasis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.

      Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.

      Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.

      Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

      Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      12.4
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  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that are disrupting her sleep. She is experiencing irregular and lighter periods. She has not undergone a hysterectomy and is interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?

      Your Answer: Vaginal oestrogen pessary

      Correct Answer: Systemic combined cyclical HRT

      Explanation:

      What are the main factors to consider when determining the appropriate HRT regime? How would you classify a patient who is still having periods? What is the recommended HRT regime for this patient?

      To determine the correct HRT regime, it is important to consider whether the patient has a uterus, whether they are perimenopausal or menopausal, and whether a systemic or local effect is needed. A patient who is still having periods is considered perimenopausal, as menopause is defined as 12 months after the last menstrual period. For this patient, the recommended HRT regime would be combined oestrogen and progestogen cyclical HRT. Cyclical HRT is preferred in perimenopausal women as it produces predictable withdrawal bleeding, while continuous regimens can cause unpredictable bleeding. Systemic oestrogen-only HRT is not appropriate for a woman with a uterus as it increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen cream or pessary would only provide a local effect and would be useful for urogenital symptoms such as vaginal dryness or dyspareunia.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively following surgery for a tibial shaft fracture. The plaster cast is removed and examination reveals tender swelling of her lower leg. All distal pulses are present and the foot and leg are warm. Pain is significantly worse with passive extension of the toes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Swollen Calf: Understanding Acute Compartment Syndrome and Other Potential Causes

      A swollen calf can be a concerning symptom, especially following trauma or surgery on the lower limb. One potential cause is acute compartment syndrome, which is a surgical emergency that can lead to limb-threatening complications. This condition occurs when pressure within a closed fascial compartment increases and compromises the neurovascular supply to the muscles within that compartment. Other potential causes of a swollen calf include a ruptured Baker’s cyst, acute limb ischaemia, cellulitis, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for prompt and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35 year-old woman has been diagnosed with fibroids and has been attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old woman has been diagnosed with fibroids and has been attempting to conceive for 2 years. She has been undergoing evaluation at the sub-fertility clinic and all tests have come back normal except for the presence of three uterine fibroids, which are asymptomatic. Her partner's semen analysis showed no abnormalities.
      What are the most suitable treatment options in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myomectomy

      Explanation:

      If a woman with large fibroids is experiencing fertility issues, the most effective treatment option that also preserves her ability to conceive in the future is myomectomy. However, depending on the specifics of the procedure, the woman may need to consider delivery options, such as a caesarean section, due to the risk of uterine rupture.

      While GnRH agonists can shrink fibroids and make them easier to remove surgically, they also temporarily turn off the ovaries, inhibiting ovulation and making pregnancy impossible during treatment. Additionally, fibroids tend to regrow after treatment is stopped. However, when combined with myomectomy, GnRH agonists can be a suitable treatment option.

      Endometrial ablation, on the other hand, destroys the endometrial lining, making it impossible for an embryo to implant. Uterine artery embolisation is also not recommended for women trying to conceive, as it significantly reduces blood supply to the uterus, making it impossible for a fetus to implant and grow.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/5) 40%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (4/5) 80%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/5) 20%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/2) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/2) 0%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
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