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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to her son, she stumbled over an exposed tree root and landed on her outstretched arms. Since the fall, she has been holding her right arm and complaining of intense pain.
An x-ray is ordered, revealing a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement. Additionally, the ulnar tip is also fractured. The fracture is located across the metaphysis of the radius and does not involve the articular cartilage.
What is the name of this type of fracture?Your Answer: Bennett fracture
Correct Answer: Colles fracture
Explanation:The most likely fracture resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is Colles fracture. This type of fracture occurs in the distal radius and typically does not involve the joint. It is the most common type of distal radius fracture. Bennett fracture, Dupuytren fracture, and Galeazzi fracture are all incorrect answers as they describe different types of fractures in other parts of the body.
Understanding Colles’ Fracture
Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.
In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an unusually large volume of urine and complaining of continuous thirst. The following investigations were conducted:
Random plasma:
Investigation Result
Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol/l
Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 4.5 mmol/l
Urine:
Investigation Result
Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
In healthy patients, the urine: plasma osmolality ratio is > 2. A water deprivation test was conducted, and after 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient's weight had dropped by >3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (im) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman?Your Answer: A pituitary tumour
Explanation:Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Comparison with Other Conditions
Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is a pituitary tumor, which reduces antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. Other conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, lithium therapy, and primary polydipsia, may also cause polydipsia and polyuria, but they present with different symptoms and responses to treatment.
To diagnose cranial DI, doctors perform a water deprivation test and measure the urine: plasma osmolality ratio. In patients with cranial DI, the ratio is below 2, indicating that the kidneys are not concentrating urine as well as they should be. However, when given desmopressin im (exogenous ADH), the patient’s urine osmolality dramatically increases, showing that the kidneys can concentrate urine appropriately when stimulated by ADH. This confirms the absence of ADH as the cause of cranial DI.
Diabetes mellitus patients present with glycosuria and hyperglycemia, in addition to polydipsia and polyuria. Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy cause nephrogenic DI, which does not respond to desmopressin im. Primary polydipsia causes low urine osmolality, low plasma osmolality, and hyponatremia due to excessive water intake. However, patients with primary polydipsia retain some ability to concentrate urine, and removing the fluid source limits polyuria to some extent.
In conclusion, diagnosing cranial DI requires a thorough comparison with other conditions that cause polydipsia and polyuria. By understanding the symptoms and responses to treatment of each condition, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat patients with cranial DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss. She now complains of a headache. On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. She has a bounding pulse of 115 bpm, a tremor, and appears pale. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which hormone is most likely responsible for her symptoms and signs?
Your Answer: Thyroxine
Correct Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hormones and their Role in Hypertension
The patient’s symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and causes malignant hypertension. Excess cortisol production in Cushing’s syndrome can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Renin abnormalities can lead to hypertension, but it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hyperaldosteronism can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Although hyperthyroidism can explain most of the patient’s symptoms, it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, the patient’s symptoms are most likely due to the secretion of catecholamines from the phaeochromocytoma tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
Investigations:
Serum:
Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
Urine:
Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
Which of the following could be the diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Explanation:Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.
Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.
Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms
Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.
Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.
Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.
Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.
Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.
Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the accurate information about primary pulmonary tuberculosis?
Your Answer: Usually produces cavitation acutely.
Correct Answer: May be totally asymptomatic
Explanation:When you see the CD symbol on a prescription, it means that the medication is a controlled drug. This indicates that the substance must be requested by a qualified practitioner and signed and dated. The prescription must also include the prescriber’s address. Additionally, the prescriber must write the patient’s name and address, the preparation, and the dose in both figures and words. If the prescription is written by a dentist, it should state for dental use only. Controlled drugs include opiates and other substances that require careful monitoring and regulation. By the CD symbol and the requirements for prescribing controlled drugs, patients can ensure that they receive safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A study comparing contrast CT colonography with colonoscopy as the reference technique for detecting large bowel carcinoma was conducted on 500 patients. The data obtained is as follows:
Investigation CT Positive CT Negative
Colonoscopy positive 40 15
Colonoscopy negative 25 420
What is the most accurate description of the performance of CT versus colonoscopy for diagnosing large bowel cancer?Your Answer: There are 10 false positives
Correct Answer: There are 20 false positives
Explanation:Evaluating CT Colonography as a Test for Bowel Cancer
Colonoscopy is currently the reference standard for detecting bowel cancer. However, CT colonography is a new test being evaluated for its effectiveness in identifying the disease. In a study of 400 patients, 40 were found to have bowel cancer through colonoscopy. Of these 40, CT scanning correctly identified 30 (true positives) but missed 10 (false negatives). On the other hand, out of the 360 patients without the disease, CT scanning identified 20 as having cancer (false positives), while the remaining 340 were correctly identified as not having the disease (true negatives).
This information can be better visualized through a table, where the new test (CT colonography) is compared to the reference standard (colonoscopy). The table shows that out of the 40 patients with bowel cancer, CT scanning correctly identified 30 (true positives) but missed 10 (false negatives). Meanwhile, out of the 360 patients without the disease, CT scanning incorrectly identified 20 as having cancer (false positives), while the remaining 340 were correctly identified as not having the disease (true negatives). This study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of CT colonography as a test for bowel cancer and determine if it can be a viable alternative to colonoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37 weeks gestation. During examination, the cervix is found to be dilated at 7 cm, the head is in direct Occipito-Anterior position, the foetal station is at -1, and the head is palpable at 2/5 ths per abdomen. The cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 100 beats/min, which persist for 15 minutes. What is the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Ventouse delivery
Correct Answer: Caesarian section
Explanation:The cardiotocogram shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, indicating the need for immediate delivery. Instrumental delivery is not possible and oxytocin and vaginal prostaglandin are contraindicated. The safest approach is an emergency caesarian section.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
His blood test results are shown below.
Investigation Results Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps
Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.
Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal bleeding and mild discomfort during intercourse for the past two weeks. She reports feeling generally healthy. During a vaginal exam, she experiences tenderness and slight dryness. What is the next step to take in the clinic?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound (TVUS)
Explanation:Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency department with breathing difficulties. Earlier that day, she had visited her general practitioner for a sore throat and was diagnosed with tonsillitis. The doctor prescribed a five-day course of oral amoxicillin. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis and takes mesalazine 400 mg tds regularly.
Upon examination, the girl appears distressed with laboured breathing and stridor. She is pale, sweaty, and cyanosed, sitting up with an open mouth and drooling saliva. Her temperature is 39°C, pulse 120/minute and regular, blood pressure 90/35 mmHg. Her lungs are clear.
What is the immediate treatment required for this patient?Your Answer: Endotracheal intubation
Explanation:Acute Epiglottitis: Diagnosis and Management
Acute epiglottitis is a possible diagnosis when a patient presents with sudden airway obstruction. It is crucial to seek the assistance of an anaesthetist immediately as attempting to visualize the inflamed epiglottis without proper expertise may cause acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis can be confirmed by directly visualizing a cherry-red epiglottis. Early intubation is necessary, especially when respiratory distress is present. Although adult epiglottitis is rare, it has a higher mortality rate.
In summary, acute epiglottitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is essential to involve an anaesthetist and avoid touching the inflamed tissue until proper expertise is present. Early intubation is crucial, and adult epiglottitis should be considered in patients with respiratory distress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old farmer has been admitted to the emergency department after being discovered unconscious in a barn. Upon initial assessment, the patient is displaying agitation and combativeness, along with excessive salivation and respiratory secretions. Additionally, there are indications of sweating, urinary and fecal incontinence, muscle fasciculations, and miosis. Based on the probable diagnosis, what observations are most likely to be present?
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is indicated by clinical examination, especially in a patient who is a farmer. The presence of bradycardia is a significant sign of severe organophosphate poisoning, which can progress to asystole. Organophosphate poisoning stimulates the vagus nerve, leading to parasympathetic symptoms such as bradycardia and hypotension. Administering atropine to block the vagus nerve can resolve bradycardia and hypotension by providing satisfactory muscarinic antagonism.
Hypertension is a rare occurrence in organophosphate poisoning and is caused by nicotinic effects. Hypotension is a more common finding due to vagus nerve stimulation.
Temperature is not a reliable indicator of organophosphate poisoning as it can vary depending on the environment and can present as hypothermia, normothermia, or hyperthermia.
Although tachycardia can occur due to nicotinic stimulation, bradycardia is a more common finding in organophosphate poisoning.Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Dolasetron
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs
Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.
On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis. During examination, he exhibits hypotension and hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further testing reveals a diagnosis of Addison's disease. What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Increased sodium
Correct Answer: Increased potassium
Explanation:Biochemical Findings in Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by primary adrenocortical insufficiency, which is caused by the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. The most prominent biochemical findings in patients with Addison’s disease are hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. This article discusses the various biochemical changes that occur in Addison’s disease, including increased potassium, increased glucose, increased bicarbonate, increased sodium, and reduced urea. These changes are a result of the loss of gland function, which leads to reduced glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The sodium-retaining and potassium and hydrogen ion-secreting action of aldosterone is particularly affected, resulting in the biochemical changes noted above. The article also highlights the most common causes of Addison’s disease, including tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, and removal of exogenous steroid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female visits her GP complaining of left-sided ear pain with discharge. Upon examination, the GP diagnoses otitis media and prescribes oral erythromycin due to the patient's penicillin allergy. The patient has a history of severe asthma and takes salbutamol and budesonide inhalers regularly, as well as montelukast 10 mg once daily, aminophylline (as Phyllocontin Continus) 225 mg twice daily, and receives omalizumab infusions at her local respiratory center. Which of her regular medications require a dosage adjustment while she is taking antibiotics?
Your Answer: Omalizumab
Correct Answer: Aminophylline
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Erythromycin
Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with penicillin allergies. However, it has many interactions that can limit its use. Macrolide antibiotics inhibit the cytochrome P450 hepatic enzyme system, which metabolizes many drugs. This inhibition leads to drug accumulation and an increased risk of toxicity and side effects. Aminophylline is a drug used to treat bronchial asthma that inhibits phosphodiesterase and has an antagonistic effect at adenosine receptors. When co-administered with erythromycin, aminophylline levels in the serum rise, leading to adenosine receptor blockade and toxicity. Other methylxanthine derivatives, such as caffeine, can also cause toxic effects when used with macrolides. Salbutamol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist drug used to cause bronchodilation in asthma treatment. There is a theoretical risk of increase in QT interval prolongation with this class of drugs, which is exaggerated by concurrent use of macrolide antibiotics. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid used to reduce bronchoconstriction in asthma treatment. It is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, and there is a theoretical risk of interaction with macrolides. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody used in patients with severe asthma with proven IgE mediated sensitivity. It causes few drug interactions, but it may precipitate an anaphylactic reaction in susceptible individuals at administration.
Overall, erythromycin has many drug interactions that can limit its use. It is important to be aware of these interactions and adjust drug regimens accordingly to avoid toxicity and side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Practice
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. After three hours, he presents with significant hypoxia and a CVP reading of 5 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals diffuse pulmonary infiltrates in both lungs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury
Explanation:Plasma components pose the highest risk for transfusion associated lung injury.
When plasma components are infused, there is a possibility of transfusion lung injury. This can cause damage to the microvasculature in the lungs, resulting in diffuse infiltrates visible on imaging. Unfortunately, mortality rates are often high in such cases. It is worth noting that a normal central venous pressure (which should be between 0-6 mmHg) is not necessarily indicative of fluid overload.
Understanding Massive Haemorrhage and its Complications
Massive haemorrhage is defined as the loss of one blood volume within 24 hours, the loss of 50% of the circulating blood volume within three hours, or a blood loss of 150ml/minute. In adults, the blood volume is approximately 7% of the total body weight, while in children, it is between 8 and 9% of their body weight.
Massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications, including hypothermia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, delayed type transfusion reactions, transfusion-related lung injury, and coagulopathy. Hypothermia occurs because the blood is refrigerated, which impairs homeostasis and shifts the Bohr curve to the left. Hypocalcaemia may occur because both fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and platelets contain citrate anticoagulant, which may chelate calcium. Hyperkalaemia may also occur because the plasma of red cells stored for 4-5 weeks contains 5-10 mmol K+.
Delayed type transfusion reactions may occur due to minor incompatibility issues, especially if urgent or non-cross-matched blood is used. Transfusion-related lung injury is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths and poses the greatest risk with plasma components. It occurs as a result of leucocyte antibodies in transfused plasma, leading to aggregation and degranulation of leucocytes in lung tissue. Finally, coagulopathy is anticipated once the circulating blood volume is transfused. One blood volume usually drops the platelet count to 100 or less, and it will both dilute and not replace clotting factors. The fibrinogen concentration halves per 0.75 blood volume transfused.
In summary, massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications that can be life-threatening. It is essential to understand these complications to manage them effectively and prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may experience what issues related to thyroid function?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism + thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism + thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).
The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.
On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.
It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump on the border of her left eyelid. She has no medical history and is generally healthy. Upon examination, a small abscess filled with pus is observed in the area. Her visual field is unaffected. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology
Correct Answer: Regular warm steaming or soaking with a warm flannel
Explanation:It is recommended to use regular warm steaming as the initial treatment for a stye. This is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information. Other treatments mentioned are not necessary for this particular condition. Styes are commonly caused by staphylococcus bacteria.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has developed a symmetrical tremor and bradykinesia. His general practitioner is concerned that he may have developed Parkinson’s disease. He has a long medical history and is on various medications. You are concerned that his presentation may be related to a drug-induced effect, rather than a primary neurological disease.
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Drug-Induced Parkinsonism: Understanding the Effects of Common Medications
Drug-induced parkinsonism is a condition that can be caused by certain medications. One such medication is metoclopramide, which acts as a dopamine antagonist and can prevent dopamine from binding to receptors in the basal ganglia, leading to Parkinsonian-like symptoms. Other medications that can cause this condition include typical and atypical anti-psychotics, as well as certain antiemetics.
However, not all medications have this effect. Cyclizine, for example, is a H1-histamine receptor blocker and is not implicated in the development of drug-induced parkinsonism. Similarly, gabapentin, simvastatin, and tramadol are not known to cause this condition.
It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to differentiate between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease, as the former can present with bilateral symptoms. By being aware of the effects of common medications, healthcare professionals can better manage their patients’ conditions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured aortic aneurysm. The athlete died from the consequences of a genetic defect called Marfan’s syndrome.
Which extracellular matrix protein is altered in this disease?Your Answer: Integrin
Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:Fibrillin-1 is a glycoprotein that forms microfibrils in the extracellular matrix. These microfibrils can create elastic fibers, providing support for tissues like vessels, ligaments, and skin. Mutations in the FIB-1 gene can cause Marfan’s syndrome, which is characterized by inelastic connective tissue and increased risk of aortic dissection. Integrins are transmembrane proteins that anchor the cell cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. Mutations in integrin genes can lead to leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I. Mutations in type I collagen can cause osteogenesis imperfecta and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Fibronectin mutations can cause fibronectin glomerulopathy, a kidney disease. Laminins are proteins in the basement membrane of epithelial cells, and mutations in some types can cause muscular dystrophy and junctional epidermolysis bullosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 21
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What is a characteristic of a trident hand?
Your Answer: Achondroplasia
Explanation:Achondroplasia: A Genetic Disorder
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, in about 90% of cases, it occurs as a result of a new spontaneous mutation in the genetic material. This disorder is characterized by several physical features, including an unusually large head with a prominent forehead and a flat nasal bridge. Additionally, individuals with achondroplasia have short upper arms and legs, which is known as rhizomelic dwarfism. They also have an unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks, as well as short hands with fingers that assume a trident or three-pronged position during extension.
To summarize, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects physical development. It is caused by a spontaneous mutation in the genetic material and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The physical features of this disorder include a large head, short limbs, and a unique hand position. this disorder is important for individuals and families affected by it, as well as for healthcare professionals who may provide care for those with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
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A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother reports that the pain woke the child up this morning, with one episode of vomiting this afternoon, and she has since lost her appetite. She has had no fever or diarrhoea. There is no history of foreign travel and no ill contacts. On examination, the temperature is 37.5 °C and heart rate (HR) 123 bpm, and there is generalised abdominal tenderness, without guarding or rigidity. Urine dip is negative, and blood tests show white cell count (WCC) of 15 with C-reactive protein (CRP) of 10.
What would the next best step in management be?Your Answer: Nil by mouth, intravenous fluids and review
Explanation:Management of Appendicitis in Children: Nil by Mouth, Laparoscopy, and Monitoring
Appendicitis in children can present with atypical symptoms, such as general abdominal pain, anorexia, and vomiting, accompanied by a low-grade fever. If a child presents with these symptoms, it is important to suspect appendicitis and admit the child for monitoring.
The first line of management is to keep the child nil by mouth and monitor their condition closely. If the child’s pain worsens or their condition deteriorates, a diagnostic or Exploratory laparoscopy may be necessary, with or without an appendicectomy.
While a laparotomy may be necessary in emergency situations where the child is haemodynamically unstable, a laparoscopic appendicectomy is usually the preferred option.
An abdominal X-ray is not the best diagnostic tool for appendicitis, but it can rule out bowel perforation and free pneumoperitoneum. Ultrasound is the preferred modality for children due to the lower radiation dose compared to CT scans.
It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition closely and prevent any complications from a perforated appendix. Discharge with oral analgesia is not recommended if the child is tachycardic and has a low-grade fever, as these symptoms can be associated with peritonitis. Overall, early recognition and prompt management are essential in the successful treatment of appendicitis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies are provided below.
Hemoglobin: 95g/L (normal range: 135-180g/L)
Mean Corpuscular Volume: 58fL (normal range: 78-100fL)
Platelets: 210* 109/L (normal range: 150-400* 109/L)
White Blood Cells: 7* 109/L (normal range: 4-11* 109/L)
Ferritin: 14 ug/L (normal range: 41-400 ug/L)
Total Iron Binding Capacity: 80 micromoles/L (normal range: 45-66 micromoles/L)
What is the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: B12 and folate
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The complete blood count results indicate that the patient has microcytic anemia, which is caused by iron deficiency according to the iron studies. In men over 60 years old, iron deficiency anemia is often linked to colorectal cancer, so urgent referral to colorectal services is necessary for suspected cancer cases. A colonoscopy and OGD are likely to be performed. CEA is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is not used for diagnosis due to its poor specificity. B12 and folate deficiency would result in an increased MCV, so they are not the cause of this patient’s anemia. If bone marrow failure were suspected, a bone marrow biopsy might be performed, but the patient’s platelets and white cell count would be reduced in such cases.
Understanding Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of mortality rates. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%. Understanding the location of the cancer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. With early detection and proper medical care, the prognosis for colorectal cancer can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching. Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary biliary cholangitis. What is the most specific symptom of primary biliary cholangitis?
Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions
Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:
1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.
2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.
3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.
4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.
5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of joint stiffness that has been bothering him for the past month. The stiffness is at its worst in the early morning and improves with use. He has no medical history, but his family has a history of psoriasis and vitiligo. The patient smokes about ten cigarettes per day and recently recovered from a viral throat infection two days ago.
During the examination, the doctor notices swelling in the patient's left knee and 1st and 2nd metatarsophalangeal joints of his right foot. The swelling is accompanied by tenderness and reduced range of active and passive movement. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis may be diagnosed even before psoriatic skin lesions appear, especially if there is a positive family history of psoriasis.
The correct answer is psoriatic arthritis, as the patient in the scenario presents with asymmetrical polyarthritis and >30 minutes of morning stiffness, which is a typical pattern of psoriatic arthritis. Additionally, the patient has a positive family history of psoriasis. In some cases, psoriatic arthritis can manifest before skin lesions, and a diagnosis can be made based on clinical patterns and family history.
Ankylosing spondylitis is an incorrect answer because it typically affects the spine and small joints of the digits, whereas the patient’s pattern of arthritis is more consistent with psoriatic arthritis.
Gout is also an incorrect answer because it usually affects only the small joints of the body, particularly the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. Patients with gout are typically older and have a history of poor diet and lack of physical activity, which is not the case for this patient. The positive family history of psoriasis also makes psoriatic arthritis more likely.
Reactive arthritis is another incorrect answer because it usually presents with mono- or oligoarthritis, whereas the patient in the scenario has polyarthritis. Additionally, reactive arthritis is often preceded by a bacterial infection, such as gastroenteritis or a sexually transmitted infection, which is not the case for this patient. The recent viral illness and positive family history of psoriasis make psoriatic arthritis more likely.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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Among the various chromosomal anomalies, which one has the highest incidence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with genetic defects in the immune system and triggered by environmental factors?
Your Answer: 47,XXY (Klinefelter’s syndrome)
Explanation:Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Association with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have a 14-fold increased risk of developing SLE compared to those with a normal karyotype, although the exact mechanism for this is unknown. However, there is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of SLE in individuals with Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, or Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome). Bloom syndrome, which is associated with a short stature, skin sensitivity to sun exposure, and an increased risk of malignancies, also does not appear to increase the risk of SLE. It is important to understand the potential associations between chromosomal abnormalities and SLE to better manage and treat patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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John is an 80-year-old man who has come in with stiffness and pain in both shoulders. His doctor suspects PMR and orders some blood tests.
ESR - erythrocyte sedimentation rate
CRP - C-reactive protein
Anti-ccp - anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide
CK - creatine kinase
Which of the following results would be most indicative of PMR in John?Your Answer: ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP ↑, CK normal
Correct Answer: ESR ↑ , CRP ↑, anti-CCP normal, CK normal
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with normal levels of creatine kinase, while patients are likely to have elevated ESR and CRP at the time of diagnosis. Unlike polymyositis, which is more commonly associated with muscle weakness, PMR does not cause an increase in CK levels. Additionally, a raised anti-CCP is typically indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in his right elbow area. He reports falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched arm.
During the examination of the affected limb, the radial pulse appears normal. The patient experiences weakness in finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits, with the index and middle fingers showing particular weakness. The patient has no feeling in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Finger extension and abduction remain unaffected.
Which of these findings is most likely to be linked to this injury?Your Answer: Loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger
Correct Answer: Persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when the boy attempts to make a fist
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Injuries in the Hand: Symptoms and Causes
When a child falls on their outstretched hand, it can result in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. This type of injury can damage the brachial artery and median nerve, leading to symptoms such as persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when attempting to make a fist. Loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three digits and weakness of finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints are also common with median nerve injury. Additionally, the inability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers (known as the ‘hand of benediction’) is caused by loss of innervation of the first and second lumbrical muscles. Other symptoms of nerve injuries in the hand include loss of thumb adduction, loss of sensation over the medial border of the hand, loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger, and loss of function of the hypothenar muscles. Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help with early diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries in the hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)
Correct Answer: Post-viral complication
Explanation:Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.
While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the definition of healing by secondary intention, which is the final stage of tissue response to injury involving regeneration and repair?
Your Answer: Excessive growth of scar tissue to form a smooth, hard layer
Correct Answer: Wounds close by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Wound Healing
Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are clean and have clear-cut edges that can be closely approximated. The wound is closed with sutures, staples, or adhesive strips, and healing occurs quickly with minimal scarring.
Secondary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are frequently contaminated or poorly delineated. The skin and tissues are left open for a short period of time before being approximated. Healing occurs by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss, and scarring is more significant.
Partial Thickness Healing: This type of healing involves epithelial cells from the dermal edges, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands replicating to cover the exposed area. It occurs in wounds that only affect the top layer of skin and typically heals without scarring.
Delayed Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are contaminated or have a high risk of infection. The wound is left open for a few days to allow for drainage and cleaning before being closed with sutures or staples. Healing occurs by a combination of primary and secondary healing, and scarring may be more significant.
Keloid Scarring: This occurs when excessive scar tissue grows, forming a smooth, hard layer that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound. Keloid scars can be itchy, painful, and may require medical treatment to reduce their appearance.
Understanding the different types of wound healing can help individuals better care for their wounds and manage scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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