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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and occasional vomiting. The headaches usually affect the right side of his head and sometimes cause temporary vision problems. They last up to 10 hours and occur approximately once every 4-6 weeks. The neurological examination and blood pressure are normal.

      What would be the most suitable initial medical treatment for acute attacks? Choose the ONE most appropriate first-line medical treatment from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Migraines: A Comparison of Medications

      Migraines are a recurring type of headache that can last for several hours to a few days. They are often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light and sound, nausea, and vomiting. There are several medications available for the treatment of migraines, each with its own benefits and drawbacks.

      Ibuprofen is a simple analgesic that is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of acute migraine attacks. It is safe for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but the daily dose should not exceed 1200 mg.

      Sumatriptan is a serotonin-receptor agonist that causes intracerebral vasoconstriction. It is recommended by NICE for the treatment of acute migraines, but it is contraindicated in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used for long-term prophylaxis of migraines. It is recommended by NICE for this use but not for acute treatment.

      Co-codamol, an opiate medication, is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of migraines due to the risk of medication-overuse headache and worsening of nausea and vomiting symptoms.

      Ergotamine tartrate, another medication that was previously used to treat migraines, is now limited in use due to its unpleasant side effects such as nausea and vomiting. NICE advises against its use for the treatment of acute migraines.

      In conclusion, the choice of medication for the treatment of migraines should be based on the patient’s medical history and the severity of their symptoms. Patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain started after he slipped and fell in his home. The pain is rated at 7/10 but increases to 9/10 when he takes a deep breath.
      The doctor suspects a possible pulmonary embolism (PE) based on the patient's medical history. The doctor calculates a 2-level PE Wells score of 1.0 (for recent surgery) and orders a D-dimer test. The patient is started on anticoagulation while waiting for the test results, which are expected to take over 4 hours to return.
      The patient's chest x-ray appears normal, and the D-dimer test comes back negative.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis but keep the interim anticoagulation

      Correct Answer: Stop the anticoagulation and consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      When investigating a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a low Wells score of ≤ 4 and a negative D-dimer result suggest that an alternative diagnosis should be considered and anticoagulation should be stopped. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and history of trauma suggest a musculoskeletal injury may be the cause of their chest pain and shortness of breath. An urgent CTPA would only be necessary if the Wells score was 4 or higher or if the D-dimer test was positive. As neither of these occurred, repeating the D-dimer test is unnecessary. Continuing anticoagulation without a confirmed PE would increase the risk of bleeding. If a PE is confirmed, anticoagulation with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant would be appropriate.

      Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.

      If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.

      Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old male on the high dependency unit has just undergone a complex...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male on the high dependency unit has just undergone a complex hip arthroplasty 12 hours ago. They are now complaining of feeling their heart pounding out of their chest and has become short of breath 30 minutes ago. An electrocardiogram (ECG) showed supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The patient attempted blowing into a syringe with the guidance of a doctor and this terminated the SVT.

      Shortly after, the patient experiences another episode of palpitations and breathlessness, with visible SVT on an ECG. The patient's vital signs include a temperature of 37.2 ºC, oxygen saturations of 98% on air, a heart rate of 180 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 85/65 mmHg.

      What is the immediate and appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat vagal manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      If a patient with tachyarrhythmia has a systolic BP below 90 mmHg, immediate DC cardioversion is necessary. This is because hypotension indicates an unstable tachyarrhythmia that can lead to shock, heart failure, syncope, or myocardial ischemia. Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are not recommended in cases of severe hypotension, and amiodarone is used for pharmacological cardioversion in broad complex tachycardia.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      237.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a rash covering her face, trunk, arms and legs. She had a fever for a couple of days with a runny nose before the rash appears but is now well and afebrile. The rash is mainly vesicular with small fluid-filled blisters and there are a few scabbed lesions. Her father is concerned as she is scratching the lesions, especially at night. She is otherwise fit and well and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for chickenpox in Children

      chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a characteristic vesicular rash. While there is no specific treatment for chickenpox, symptomatic relief can be provided to alleviate itching and fever. Here are some treatment options for chickenpox in children:

      1. Chlorphenamine: This sedating antihistamine can be used at night-time to help with itching.

      2. Aciclovir: This antiviral medication is recommended for patients who are immunosuppressed or have risk factors for developing complications from infection, such as adults or newborns.

      3. Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is used to treat secondary bacterial infections that can occur with chickenpox. However, it is not necessary for a child who is well and afebrile.

      4. Ibuprofen: While ibuprofen and paracetamol are both used as antipyretics in children with febrile illnesses, the use of ibuprofen in children with chickenpox is linked to an increased risk of severe skin infection. Paracetamol is recommended instead.

      5. Malathion: This treatment is for scabies, not chickenpox. Scabies presents with a different type of rash and does not have a prodromal illness.

      In summary, treatment for chickenpox in children is mainly symptomatic. Antihistamines and calamine lotion can help with itching, while paracetamol can be used for fever. Antibiotics and antivirals are only necessary in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?

      Your Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%

      Explanation:

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy, her GP diagnosed her with stage 2 hypertension after an ambulatory reading of 150/95 mmHg. She has been taking 10mg ramipril daily to manage her blood pressure since then. Currently, her sitting blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch to labetalol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      139.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.

      Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.

      Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.

      Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.

      Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's disease. His gastroenterologist decides to begin azathioprine for remission maintenance after the surgery. What is the crucial enzyme level to test before starting this treatment?

      Your Answer: Alanine transaminase (ALT)

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol presents to the Emergency Department with occasional episodes of chest pain, lasting only for a few minutes. This occurs while at rest and is accompanied by palpitations. He is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 140/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% and a heart rate of 160 bpm. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is done which shows no P waves, with regular narrow QRS complexes interspersed along a saw-tooth baseline. Vagal manoeuvres have failed and three boluses of adenosine fail to control the arrhythmia.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments is indicated?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Flutter: Medications and Procedures

      Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that can be managed through various medications and procedures. The first step in treatment is to control the ventricular rate, which can be achieved through the administration of beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers. For patients with diabetes mellitus, cardio-selective beta-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol are preferred.

      Amiodarone is not the first-line treatment for atrial flutter and is mainly used for ventricular tachycardias and chemical cardioversion in atrial fibrillation. Propranolol can be used for rate control, but cardio-selective beta-blockers are preferred for patients with diabetes mellitus.

      Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion is the first-line treatment for patients with haemodynamic instability caused by a tachyarrhythmia. However, if the patient exhibits no adverse signs, DC cardioversion is not indicated. Unsynchronised DC cardioversion is only given in cases of ventricular fibrillation.

      All patients should be assessed for their risk of stroke and the need for thromboprophylaxis, with the choice of anticoagulant based on scoring criteria such as CHA2DS2-VASc. Overall, the management of atrial flutter involves a tailored approach based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      227.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.

      Treatment for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.

      According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.

      The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.

      In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain that has been present for 3 days. The patient is new to the clinic and there is no medical history available on the system. Upon examination, you observe the patient's facial features, which include upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue. Otoscopy examination of the left ear reveals a bulging tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media can be indicated by a bulging tympanic membrane, which is a common occurrence in individuals with Down’s syndrome. Lesions in the attic area of the tympanic membrane are typically associated with cholesteatoma. Otitis externa does not typically result in a bulging otitis media, while otitis media with effusion is characterized by a retracted tympanic membrane and a feeling of fullness in the ear.

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are prone to experiencing vision and hearing problems. In terms of vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, both congenital and acquired, are more prevalent in this population, as well as recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids. Glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, is also a potential issue.

      Regarding hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to hearing problems. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, while glue ear is a buildup of fluid in the middle ear that can cause temporary hearing loss. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      111.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 9.5
      2 15.0

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options

      Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      13.2
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining of lethargy and nausea. His full blood count, thyroid function test, calcium and liver function tests all come back normal. However, his urea and electrolytes reveal significant hyponatraemia, while the rest of the results are normal. He has a reduced plasma osmolality and increased urine osmolality. He is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Abnormal Urine Osmolality: A Brief Overview

      Abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Here are some of the possible causes and how to differentiate them:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
      SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of ADH, leading to hyperosmolar urine and low plasma osmolality. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders, malignancies, and drugs. Treatment involves fluid restriction and addressing the underlying cause.

      Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
      This condition is caused by the hypothalamus not producing enough vasopressin, resulting in extreme thirst and polyuria. However, urine osmolality is reduced, not elevated.

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidneys becoming resistant to the effect of vasopressin/ADH, leading to large volumes of dilute urine with reduced osmolality. Causes include electrolyte imbalances, medications, and renal tubular acidosis.

      Addison’s Disease
      This condition is characterized by reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. Deficiency of mineralocorticoid leads to increased sodium excretion from the kidneys, resulting in hyponatremia associated with hyperkalemia. However, in this case, the patient has normal potassium levels.

      Primary Polydipsia
      This condition is caused by excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus, resulting in dilute polyuria. However, in this patient, the urine osmolality is concentrated, making this diagnosis unlikely. A fluid deprivation test can help confirm or rule out this condition.

      In summary, abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?

      Your Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.

      For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.

      For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who has noticed that his hearing on the right side has been progressively diminishing for the past six months. Additionally, he also complains of feeling unbalanced and of not being able to walk properly and leaning more towards the right side. On referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Department, the Consultant conducts a detailed clinical examination and finds nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, in addition to a sensorineural loss in his right ear.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Plain computerised tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma

      Acoustic neuroma is a condition characterized by unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. The following diagnostic tests can aid in the diagnosis of this condition:

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): This is the preferred test for detecting acoustic neuroma as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain Computerized Tomography (CT) Scan: CT scan with contrast can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss by assessing the widening of the internal auditory canal and the extent of tumor growth. However, plain CT cannot detect some cases of acoustic neuroma.

      Otoscopy: This test is useful in diagnosing conditions of bone conduction deafness but is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA): This is the best initial screening laboratory test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. Test results typically show an asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss, usually more prominent at higher frequencies.

      Vestibular Colorimetric Test: This test has limited utility as a screening test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. A decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen, but with small-sized tumors, a normal response is often seen.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can aid in the accurate diagnosis of acoustic neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old male has been admitted to the cardiology ward following his presentation...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male has been admitted to the cardiology ward following his presentation to the emergency department with palpitations and dyspnoea. After further investigations, he was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed digoxin for rate control. What is the recommended frequency for routine drug monitoring in this case?

      Your Answer: At 1 month, 3 months and 6 months

      Correct Answer: No routine monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Digoxin levels do not require regular monitoring, unless there is suspicion of toxicity. As this patient is commencing digoxin and has no signs of toxicity, routine monitoring is unnecessary. It is not necessary to measure digoxin levels every month until they have stabilized, nor is it appropriate to monitor the drug every 2 weeks for the first 3 months. Routine monitoring is also not required annually throughout the course of treatment.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.9
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  • Question 21 - As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?

      Your Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit + IV mesalazine

      Correct Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months

      Explanation:

      For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments

      When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.

      For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.

      It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.

      When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.

      Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.

      In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
      What is the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options

      Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of 'cystitis'. She reports experiencing dysuria, suprapubic pains, and frequency for the past two days. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are present. Her temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      This expectant woman displays indications that align with a urinary tract infection. According to the BNF, trimethoprim should not be used during the initial trimester as it can hinder folate. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for use during pregnancy. Since the patient is clearly experiencing a UTI and has a fever, prompt treatment is necessary instead of waiting for the MSU.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin for the past 2 weeks. She claims that is a lot worse during this pregnancy compared to her last one. History reveals that she is currently 30 weeks pregnant with no complications up until presentation.

      On examination, the only notable findings are mild jaundice seen in the sclerae, as well as excoriations around the umbilicus and flanks. She denies any tenderness in her abdomen during the examination. Blood tests show the following:

      ALT 206 U/L
      AST 159 U/L
      ALP 796 umol/l
      GGT 397 U/L
      Bilirubin (direct) 56 umol/L
      Bile salts 34 umol/L
      Bile salts reference range 0 - 14 umol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis

      Explanation:

      Obstetric cholestasis, also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, is a condition that occurs when the flow of bile is impaired, resulting in a buildup of bile salts in the skin and placenta. The cause of this condition is believed to be a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. While the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the buildup of bile salts can also harm the fetus. The fetus’s immature liver may struggle to break down the excessive levels of bile salts, and the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins may lead to sudden asphyxial events in the fetus, resulting in anoxia and death.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.1
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  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue. She seems sick and sleepy. Neck stiffness is found during examination.
      What is the main factor that would prevent a lumbar puncture (LP) in this case?

      Your Answer: Extensive rash on trunk and limbs

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture in Children with Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      When a child presents with suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed as soon as possible. However, there are certain contraindications that must be considered before attempting an LP. These include signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), haemodynamic instability, extensive or spreading purpura, seizures (until stabilised), coagulation abnormalities, infection at the site of LP, and respiratory compromise.

      A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13 is not a contraindication for LP. However, an LP should not be attempted when there are signs of raised ICP, such as a GCS score < 9, drop in GCS of 3, relative bradycardia and hypertension, focal neurological signs, abnormal posturing, anisocoria (unequal pupils), papilloedema, or tense or bulging fontanelle. A history of febrile seizure in the past is not a contraindication for LP. However, if the child has ongoing seizures, an LP should not be attempted. Tachycardia is also not a contraindication for LP, as it could be a result of fever. However, if there is any feature of haemodynamic compromise, such as prolonged capillary refill, hypotension, or reduced urine output, an LP should not be attempted. Coagulation abnormalities are contraindications for LP. A LP should not be attempted when the platelet count is < 100 × 109/l, the patient is on anticoagulants, or bleeding and clotting parameters are deranged. It is important to consider these contraindications before attempting an LP in children with suspected bacterial meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.6
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/4) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/3) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed