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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male sustained a severe blunt injury just below the bridge of the nose with industrial machinery. Imaging demonstrates a fracture involving the superior orbital fissure. On examination, an ipsilateral pupillary defect is present and loss of the corneal reflexes. In addition to these examination findings, all of the following are present except?
Your Answer: Complete ophthalmoplegia
Correct Answer: Nystagmus
Explanation:The clinical symptoms of Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome can be explained by the nerve involvement on an anatomic basis.
External ophthalmoplegia is secondary to impairment of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves.
Ptosis develops because of lost tension and function of the levator palpebrae superior muscle involving the superior branch of the oculomotor nerve, and loss of tone in Muller’s muscle involving the sympathetic fibre arising from the cavernous sinus.
Proptosis is caused by a decreased tension of the extraocular muscles, which normally are globe retractors, thereby allowing forward movement of the globe.
The fixed dilated pupil with loss of accommodation arises from disruption of the parasympathetic fibres coursing with the oculomotor nerve.
Compromise of the lacrimal and frontal nerves of the ophthalmic branches of the trigeminal nerve results in anaesthesia of the forehead and upper eyelid, lacrimal hyposecretion, and possibly in retro-orbital pain and neuralgia along the path of the nerve.
Because of the disruption of the sensory nasociliary nerve, there may be anaesthesia of the cornea and the bridge of the nose with loss of the corneal reflex. When the disruption is partial, the corneal reflex remains intact.
If the optic nerve is also involved including the above-mentioned symptoms, it is known as the orbital apex syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?
Your Answer: Active H+ and Cl– co-transport
Correct Answer: H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a swelling over his left elbow after a fall on an outstretched hand. On examination, he has tenderness over the proximal part of his forearm and has severely restricted supination and pronation movements. What is the most likely injury?
Your Answer: Fracture of the radial head
Explanation:The patient has an injury due to falling on outstretched hands (FOOSH). Putting his clinical picture into consideration, he is most likely to have a fracture of the radial head.
Radial head fractures often occur with FOOSH injuries. Patients will complain of wrist pain, as well as elbow pain, and be hesitant to perform a range of motion. However, pain with supination and pronation at the elbow is imperative for diagnosis. Palpation at the lateral aspect of the elbow will elicit pain; you also may feel crepitus at the radial head with supination pronation. X-rays should be ordered, with a minimum of two views (AP and lateral). Radial head fractures can be difficult to recognize on x-ray. Assess for a sail sign or effusion on the image. A positive fat pad sign aids in diagnosis, as well. If the image is inconclusive, but the exam is consistent, treat until proven otherwise.
Management should include intensive patient education. Compression wrapping for comfort and stability may be used along with a sling. Please note, early light motion is imperative for these patients, as elbow contracture and stiffness are very common after injury, possibly leading to long-term complications. These patients need to be seen by an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible to begin management. Be aware that if displacement or step-off of the radial head is present, this may require surgical intervention, and motion could worsen alignment if not managed meticulously.
Other INJURIES TO THE UPPER EXTREMITY DUE TO (FOOSH):
Radial Styloid Fracture
Distal Radius Fracture
Scaphoid Fracture
Scapholunate Tear
Distal Radioulnar Joint
Cellulitis
Synovitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a motorcycle accident. He sustained a closed, unstable spiral tibial fracture and has been managed with an intramedullary nail. However, after being transferred to the ward, he is noted to have increasing pain in the affected limb. On examination, the limb is swollen and tender with pain felt on passive stretching of the toes.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome
Explanation:Severe pain in the limb following fixation with intramedullary devices should raise suspicion of compartment syndrome, especially in tibial fractures.
Compartment syndrome is a particular complication that may occur following fractures, especially supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries. It is characterised by raised pressure within a closed anatomical space which may, eventually, compromise tissue perfusion, resulting in necrosis.
The clinical features of compartment syndrome include:
1. Pain, especially on movement
2. Paraesthesia
3. Pallor
4. Paralysis of the muscle group may also occurDiagnosis is made by measurement of intracompartmental pressure. Pressures >20mmHg are abnormal and >40mmHg are diagnostic.
Compartment syndrome requires prompt and extensive fasciotomy. Myoglobinuria may occur following fasciotomy, resulting in renal failure. Therefore, aggressive IV fluids are required. If muscle groups are frankly necrotic at fasciotomy, they should be debrided, and amputation may have to be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?
Your Answer: Cupola
Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess
Explanation:The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.
The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.
The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.
Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?
Your Answer: Posterior tibial
Correct Answer: Peroneal
Explanation:The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?
Your Answer: A direct inguinal hernia
Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?
Your Answer: In extrapyramidal disorders like Parkinsonism
Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation:A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?
Your Answer: First perforating artery
Correct Answer: Profunda femoris artery
Explanation:The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).
The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:
Lateral circumflex femoral artery
Medial circumflex femoral artery
Perforating arteries -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patients sciatic nerve has been severed following a stab injury. What would be affected?
Your Answer: The muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg would still be functional
Correct Answer: There would still be cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh
Explanation:The sciatic nerve supplies nearly all of the sensation of the skin of the leg and the muscles of the back of the thigh, leg and foot. A transection of the sciatic nerve at its exit from the pelvis will affect all the above-mentioned functions except cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh, which comes from the femoral nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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When a patient that is less than 21 years of age develops a bone tumour. What is the most common benign bone tumour that would be considered in individuals below 21 years?
Your Answer: Chondromyxoid fibroma
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondroma is a benign new bone growth that protrudes from the outer contour of bones and is capped by growing cartilage. Nearly 80% of these lesions are noted before the age of 21 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The lateral thoracic artery:
Your Answer: Is a branch of the subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle
Explanation:The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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A 33 year old African woman presents with complaints of continuous dribbling of urine after the birth of her second child. The woman denies any complications associated with her pregnancies except for prolonged labour. She is otherwise healthy and feels well. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula
Explanation:Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is an abnormal opening between the bladder and the vagina that results in continuous and unremitting urinary incontinence. It is one of the most distressing complications of gynaecologic and obstetric procedures. Vesicovaginal fistulae should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops malignant mesothelioma and is scheduled for pleuropneumonectomy to remove the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which layer would provide a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?
Your Answer: Endothoracic fascia
Explanation:The endothoracic fascia is connective tissue that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner aspect of the chest wall. Removing this layer of connective tissue would make it easy to separate the costal pleura from the thoracic wall.
Deep fascia: is not found around the lungs. It is a layer of connective tissue that invests a muscle or a group of muscles.
Parietal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the inner surface of the chest/thoracic cavity.
Visceral pleura: is the serous membrane that lines the surface of the lungs.
Transversus thoracis muscle fascia is associated only with the muscle transversus thoracis.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. It is not associated with the thoracic wall or the costal pleura. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?
Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 52 year old man undergoes a renal transplant from a living related donor. He is well for the first five months, but on review in the renal clinic, he is noted to have persistent hypertension and a slight deterioration in renal function. What is the best explanation for this?
Your Answer: Acute rejection
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Transplant renal artery stenosis (TRAS) is a well-recognized vascular complication after kidney transplant. It occurs most frequently in the first 6 months after kidney transplant, and is one of the major causes of graft loss and premature death in transplant recipients. Transplant renal artery stenosis (TRAS) is the narrowing of the transplant renal artery, impeding blood flow to the allograft. It accounts for 1–5% cases of post-transplant hypertension. Patients with TRAS have activated RAAS and usually present with worsening or refractory hypertension, fluid retention and/or allograft dysfunction without evidence of rejection.
Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with stent placement is generally the first-line therapy to correct hemodynamically significant stenosis in TRAS, especially for lesions that are short, linear and distal to the anastomosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 17
Correct
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Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5 g/dl, haematocrit 66%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 86 fl, mean cell haemoglobin concentration 34 g/dl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin 34.5 pg, platelet count 450 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 12 × 109/l, with 81% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 4% bands, 3% monocytes, and 7% lymphocytes. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera
Explanation:The markedly increased haematocrit, along with thrombocytosis and the leucocytosis suggest a myeloproliferative disorder.
Polycythaemia vera is the commonest myeloproliferative disorders occurring more often in males (about 1.4 to 1). The mean age at diagnosis is 60 years (range 15–90 years) with 5% of patients below 40 years at onset. It involves increased production of all cell lines, including red blood cells (independent of erythropoietin), white blood cells and platelets. If confined only to red blood cells, it is known as ‘primary erythrocytosis’. There is an increase in blood volume and hyperviscosity occurs, predisposing to thrombosis. Increased bleeding occurs due to abnormal functioning of platelets. Patients become hypermetabolic, and increased cell turnover leads to hyperuricaemia.
Usually asymptomatic, occasionally symptoms include weakness, pruritus, headache, light-headedness, visual disturbances, fatigue and dyspnoea. Face appears red with engorged retinal veins. Lower extremities appear red and painful, along with digital ischaemia (erythromelalgia). Hepatomegaly is common and massive splenomegaly is seen in 75% patients. Thrombosis can lead to stroke, deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, retinal artery or vein occlusion, splenic infarction (often with a friction rub) or Budd–Chiari syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding is seen in 10-20% patients. Hypermetabolism can lead to low-grade fevers and weight loss. Late features include complications of hyperuricaemia (e.g. gout, renal calculi). 1.5% to 10% cases transform to acute leukaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.
Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.
Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 54 year old man with end stage renal failure is undergoing a live donor renal transplant. The surgeon decides to implant the kidney in the left iliac fossa via a Rutherford Morrison incision. To which vessels should the transplanted kidney be anastomosed?
Your Answer: Aorta and inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: External iliac artery and vein
Explanation:For this procedure:
Following the preparation of the patient, a Rutherford-Morison incision was made at the right or left iliac fossa to access to the iliac vessels. Heparin (2500-4000 IU bolus) was given intravenously prior to the clamping of the iliac vessels. The renal artery was first anastomosed in an end-to-side fashion to the external iliac artery. The corner sutures (6/0 Prolene) were placed while the kidney allograft was first placed at the medial side of the incision. The lateral side of the renal artery was anastomosed by continuous suture using the 6/0 Prolene suture. The kidney allograft was then flipped to the lateral side and the medial side of the renal artery was anastomosed to the external iliac artery. The anastomosis was checked by placing a small vascular bulldog to the renal artery and the vascular clamp was released over the external iliac artery.Following the renal artery anastomosis, the renal vein was anastomosed in an end-to-side fashion to the external iliac vein. Two corner sutures (5/0 Prolene) were placed first, then the lateral side of renal vein anastomosis was performed with continuous sutures from inside the lumen, and then a medial side anastomosis was performed by continuous sutures from the outside of the lumen (Figure (Figure2).2). Similarly, the anastomosis was checked by placing a vascular clamp over the renal vein and then releasing the vascular clamp on the external iliac vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year old male, who was a chronic smoker presented to the clinic with backache and dry, incessant cough. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure, purplish striae on his abdomen, truncal obesity and tenderness over the lower thoracic spine. These findings are suggestive of which condition?
Your Answer: 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency
Correct Answer: Small-cell anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma
Explanation:The symptoms suggest Cushing syndrome due to increased glucocorticoid levels. One cause of Cushing syndrome is ectopic production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone from oat cell carcinoma. As oat cell carcinoma is known to be highly metastatic, the tenderness in lower back could represent metastatic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 18 year old man is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe meningococcal sepsis. He is on maximal inotropic support and a CT scan of his chest and abdomen is performed. The adrenal glands show evidence of diffuse haemorrhage. Which of the following is the best explanation?
Your Answer: Walker - Warburg syndrome
Correct Answer: Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome
Explanation:Answer: Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a condition characterized by the abrupt onset of fever, petechiae, arthralgia, weakness, and myalgias, followed by acute haemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands and severe cardiovascular dysfunction. The syndrome is most often associated with meningococcal septicaemia but may occur as a complication of sepsis caused by other organisms, including certain streptococcal species. This disorder may be associated with a history of splenectomy.
Fulminant infection from meningococcal bacteria in the bloodstream is a medical emergency and requires emergent treatment with vasopressors, fluid resuscitation, and appropriate antibiotics. Benzylpenicillin was once the drug of choice with chloramphenicol as a good alternative in allergic patients. Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic commonly employed today. Hydrocortisone can sometimes reverse the adrenal insufficiency. Amputations, reconstructive surgery, and tissue grafting are sometimes needed as a result of tissue necrosis (typically of the extremities) caused by the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia repair. Labs are suggestive of a primary haemostasis defect. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to cause it?
Your Answer: Factor VI
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Primary haemostatic control means the first line of defence against immediate bleeding. This is carried out by the platelets. They immediately form a haemostatic plug at the site of injury. Coagulation starts within 20s after an injury to the blood vessel which damage the endothelial cells. Secondary haemostasis follows which includes activation of the coagulation factors to form fibrin strands which mesh together forming the platelet plug. Platelets interact with platelet collagen receptor, glycoprotein Ia/IIa and to collagen fibres in the vascular endothelium. This adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which forms links between the platelet glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and collagen fibrils. The platelets are then activated and release the contents of their granules into the plasma, in turn activating other platelets and white blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 52 year old man complains of significant abdominal pain and presents to his family doctor. Past medical history shows that he is recovering following a live donor related renal transplant. Which analgesic drug would be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Morphine
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:As a class, NSAIDs are known to have direct nephrotoxic effects including afferent vasoconstriction leading to reduced glomerular filtration; allergic reactions leading to tubulointerstitial nephritis; nephrotic syndromes, which commonly include minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephropathy; fluid and sodium retention; worsening of pre-existing hypertension; papillary necrosis and various electrolyte disturbances, including hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia and type 4 renal tubular acidosis.
The use of NSAIDs should be minimized among patients with Stage 3 CKD and avoided in those with Stage 4 or Stage 5 CKD with residual kidney function or recipients of kidney transplant regardless of CKD stage. It is conceivable that compromised intraglomerular hemodynamic may be potentiated with concurrent use of NSAIDs and calcineurin inhibitors in the transplant setting.
Diclofenac which is an NSAID should therefore be avoided in this patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle) involved in contraction was selectively inhibited. Which protein was inhibited?
Your Answer: Actin
Correct Answer: Troponin
Explanation:The mechanism of contraction of smooth muscles is different from that of skeletal muscles in which the contractile protein is troponin whilst in smooth muscle contraction is a protein called calmodulin. Calmodulin reacts with calcium ions and stimulates the formation of myosin crossbridges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:
Your Answer: Parathyroid cyst
Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst
Explanation:Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?
Your Answer: Anterior ciliary artery
Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina
Explanation:The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old man presents with a five-week history of painful, bright red bleeding that typically occurs after defecation and is noted on the toilet paper. External inspection of the anal canal shows a small skin tag at six o'clock position. The patient does not give consent for internal palpation. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Internal rectal prolapse
Correct Answer: Fissure-in-ano
Explanation:Painful, bright red rectal bleeding is usually due to a fissure. Presence of pain and the sentinel tag suggests a posterior fissure-in-ano.
Anal fissures are a common cause of painful, bright red, rectal bleeding. Most fissures are idiopathic and present as a painful mucocutaneous defect in the posterior midline (90% cases). Fissures are more likely to be anteriorly located in females, particularly if they are multiparous. Diseases associated with fissure-in-ano include:
1. Crohn’s disease
2. Tuberculosis
3. Internal rectal prolapseDiagnosis:
In most cases, the defect can be visualised as a posterior midline epithelial defect. Where symptoms are highly suggestive of the condition and examination findings are unclear, an examination under anaesthesia may be helpful. Atypical disease presentation should be investigated with colonoscopy and EUA with biopsies of the area.Treatment:
1. Stool softeners are important as hard stools may tear the epithelium and result in recurrent symptoms. The most effective first-line agents are topically applied GTN (0.2%) or Diltiazem (2%) paste. Side effects of diltiazem are better tolerated.
2. Resistant cases may benefit from injection of botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy. Advancement flaps may be used to treat resistant cases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.
Your Answer: Coronary sinus – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery
Explanation:A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
