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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with an ulcerated mass at the anal verge. A biopsy is taken and the histology demonstrates as squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following viral infection is most likely to have contributed to the development of the condition?
Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus 1
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16
Explanation:Anal squamous cell cancer is believed to be directly linked to the presence of a complex inflammatory process most commonly caused by HPV infection (particularly with serotypes 16 and 18) in the histologically unique area of the anal squamocolumnar epithelium. In one Scandinavian study, serotype 16 HPV DNA was detected in 73% of anal cancer specimens, and serotype 16, 18, or both were detected in 84% of specimens. In contrast, no rectal cancer specimens contained HPV DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42 year old female has a redo thyroidectomy for a multinodular goitre. She develops oculogyric crises and diffuse muscle spasm a day after completing surgery. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous calcium
Explanation:Tetany: A condition that is due usually to low blood calcium (hypocalcaemia) and is characterized by spasms of the hands and feet, cramps, spasm of the voice box (larynx), and overactive neurological reflexes. Tetany is generally considered to result from very low calcium levels in the blood. However, tetany can also result from reduction in the ionized fraction of plasma calcium without marked hypocalcaemia, as is the case in severe alkalosis (when the blood is highly alkaline).
Hypocalcaemic tetany (HT) is the consequence of severely lowered calcium levels (<2.0 mmol/l), usually in patients with chronic hypocalcaemia. The causal disease for hypocalcaemic tetany is frequently a lack of parathyroid hormone (PTH), (e. g. as a complication of thyroid surgery) or, rarely, resistance to PTH. HT due to severe and painful clinical symptoms requires rapid i. v. calcium replacement by central venous catheter on an intensive care unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:
Your Answer: Hilum
Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess
Explanation:The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.
The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.
Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.
Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.
The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following proteins acts as cofactor in the thrombin-induced activation of anticoagulant protein C?
Your Answer: Thrombomodulin
Explanation:Thrombomodulin is a protein cofactor expressed on the surface of endothelial cells. Thrombomodulin binds with thrombin forming a complex which activates protein C, initiating the anticoagulant pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old male presents with altered bowel habit. He is known to have familial polyposis coli. A colonoscopy shows widespread polyps, with high-grade dysplasia in a polyp removed from the rectum. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a pan proctocolectomy
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant, hereditary colon cancer syndrome that is characterized by the presence of innumerable adenomatous polyps in the colon and rectum. Gardner’s syndrome is a variant of FAP, which in addition to the colonic polyps, also presents extracolonic manifestations, including desmoid tumours, osteomas, epidermoid cysts, various soft tissue tumours, and a predisposition to the thyroid and periampullary cancers.
Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.
Mutations of the APC gene are thought to be responsible for the development of FAP, and the location of the mutation on the gene is thought to influence the nature of the extracolonic manifestations that a given patient might develop.
Though patients are often asymptomatic, bleeding, diarrhoea, abdominal pain and mucous discharge frequently occur. Diagnostic tools include genetic testing, endoscopy, and monitoring for extra-intestinal manifestations.
If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. Besides, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.
Currently, surgery is the only effective means of preventing progression to colorectal carcinoma. Restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (RPC/IPAA) with mucosectomy is the preferred surgical procedure since it attempts to eliminate all colorectal mucosa without the need for an ostomy. Periampullary carcinoma and intra-abdominal desmoid tumours are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients after colectomy. Frequent endoscopy is needed to prevent the former, while there is no definitive treatment available yet for the latter. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 6
Correct
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A young man is involved in a motorcycle accident in which he is thrown several metres in the air before dropping to the ground. He is found with two fractures in the 2nd and 3rd rib and his chest movements are irregular. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition?
Your Answer: Flail chest injury
Explanation:Answer: Flail chest injury
Flail chest is a life-threatening medical condition that occurs when a segment of the rib cage breaks due to trauma and becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall. Two of the symptoms of flail chest are chest pain and shortness of breath.
It occurs when multiple adjacent ribs are broken in multiple places, separating a segment, so a part of the chest wall moves independently. The number of ribs that must be broken varies by differing definitions: some sources say at least two adjacent ribs are broken in at least two places, some require three or more ribs in two or more places. The flail segment moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest wall: because of the ambient pressure in comparison to the pressure inside the lungs, it goes in while the rest of the chest is moving out, and vice versa. This so-called paradoxical breathing is painful and increases the work involved in breathing.
Flail chest is usually accompanied by a pulmonary contusion, a bruise of the lung tissue that can interfere with blood oxygenation. Often, it is the contusion, not the flail segment, that is the main cause of respiratory problems in people with both injuries.
Surgery to fix the fractures appears to result in better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35 year old IV drug abuser arrives at the clinic with localized spinal pain. It is worse on movement and has been occurring for the last 2 months. The pain is refractory to analgesic treatment and is felt excruciatingly at rest too. He has no history of tuberculosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Potts disease of the spine
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Complications of intravenous drug abuse, such as subcutaneous abscess, joint infections, osteomyelitis, overdose, hepatitis, and infective endocarditis, account for an increasing number of admissions in accident and emergency departments throughout the UK. The organisms that usually cause chronic osteomyelitis in intravenous drug users are Gram‐negative rods such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Gram‐positive cocci such as staphylococci. Early treatment is essential to prevent progressive bone destruction. TB tends to affect the thoracic spine and in other causes of osteomyelitis the lumbar spine is affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the A&E department following a trauma. He is haemodynamically unstable. Initial attempts at intravenous access are proving unsuccessful.What should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Insert an intraosseous infusion system
Explanation:Gaining venous access in small children is challenging most of the times especially in cases of trauma. Therefore, intraosseous infusions should be preferred in this setting. Broviac lines are long-term IV access systems with narrow lumens and, hence, would be unsuitable.
Intraosseous access is typically undertaken at the anteromedial aspect of the proximal tibia and provides access to the marrow cavity and circulatory system. Although traditionally preferred in paediatric practice, it may be used in adults as well, and a wide range of fluids can be infused using this approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?
Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency
Explanation:Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?
Your Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25 year old man is admitted with a splenic rupture despite not being involved in any trauma. Which of the following infections can cause spontaneous splenic rupture?
Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
fever,
fatigue,
swollen tonsils,
headache, and
sweats,
sore throat,
swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
sometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
Despite the fact that infectious mononucleosis is a self-limiting disease, it may cause serious and lethal complications. The mechanism of splenic rupture secondary to infectious mononucleosis has been controversial. It is commonly believed that it is caused by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure or contraction of the diaphragm with vigorous cough, vomiting and defecation, leading to a compression of the spleen. However, Patel et al. argue that it is primarily the result of an expanding subcapsular haematoma which subsequently tears the capsule and leads to hemoperitoneum. Traditionally, rupture of spleen is treated by splenectomy. The rationale is to prevent the chance of sudden death as an early complication of splenic rupture and the risk from blood transfusion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 12
Correct
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A 56 year old man presents to the emergency with a type IIIc Gustilo and Anderson fracture of distal tibia after being involved in a road traffic accident. He was trapped under the wreckage for about 7 hours and had been bleeding profusely from the fracture site during this time. He is found to have an established neurovascular deficit. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Amputation
Explanation:A below-knee amputation (“BKA”) is a transtibial amputation that involves removing the foot, ankle joint, and distal tibia and fibula with related soft tissue structures. In general, a BKA is preferred over an above-knee amputation (AKA), as the former has better rehabilitation and functional outcomes. There are three major categories of indications for proceeding with a BKA. These include:
– Urgent cases where source control of necrotizing infections or haemorrhagic injuries outweighs limb preservation.
– Less acutely, urgent BKAs may be performed for chronic nonhealing ulcers or significant infections with the risk of impending systemic infection or sepsis.
– Urgent BKAs may be performed where limb salvage has failed to preserve a mangled lower extremity. Adequate resuscitation and stabilization must always have occurred before such a decision, as judged by vital signs, lactate, base deficit, and the management of concomitant injuries.
This man is hemodynamically unstable and the limb is likely to be non-viable after so many hours of entrapment. Hence, the safest option would be primary amputation of the injured limb. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:
Your Answer: Thirst
Correct Answer: Hyperaesthesia
Explanation:Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:
Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year old gentleman was recently diagnosed with hypertension, with no other abnormality on physical examination. Further investigations revealed the following : Na+ 144 mmol/l, K+ 3.0 mmol/l, Cl- 107 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 25 mmol/l. Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Conn syndrome
Explanation:Overproduction of aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid) by the adrenal glands is known as Conn’s syndrome. It can be either due to an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma (50-60% cases) or adrenal gland hyperplasia (40-50% cases). Excess aldosterone leads to sodium and water retention, along with potassium excretion. This leads to arterial (non-essential) hypertension. Conn’s syndrome is the commonest cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, headache (due to hypokalaemia) and metabolic alkalosis, which occurs due to increased secretion of H+ ions by the kidney. The raised pH of the blood traps calcium leading to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, which can be mimicked by liquorice ingestion and Liddle syndrome. To diagnose Conn’s syndrome, the ratio of renin and aldosterone is measured. Due to suppression of renin secretion, there is low renin to aldosterone ratio (<0.05). However, anti-hypertensives may affect the test results and should be withdrawn for 6 weeks. Computed tomography can also be done to detect the presence of adrenal adenoma.
Cushing’s syndrome does not cause hypokalaemia with normal serum glucose levels. Nelson’s syndrome refers to increased ACTH secretion due to pituitary adenoma. Pheochromocytoma will not lead to hypokalaemia even though hypertension can be seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 2-day old neonate is developing increasing problems with feeding. On examination, she has a pan systolic murmur and her forearms have not developed properly. What is the most likely underlying problem?
Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:The child has VACTERL
Over 50% of infants with oesophageal atresia have one or more additional anomalies.
The VATER association consists of a combination of anomalies including vertebral, anorectal, tracheooesophageal and renal or radial abnormalities. This association was later expanded as the VACTERL association to include cardiac and limb defects.
Other associations which may include oesophageal atresia are the CHARGE association (coloboma, heart defects, atresia choanal, retarded growth and development, genital hypoplasia and ear deformities), POTTER’S syndrome (renal agenesis, pulmonary hypoplasia, typical dysmorphic facies) and SCHISIS association (omphalocele, cleft lip and/or palate, genital hypoplasia). Genetic defects associated with oesophageal atresia include Trisomy 21 and 18, and 13q deletion. Of the cardiac anomalies, the most common are ventricular septal defect and tetralogy of Fallot. Major cardiac malformations are one of the main causes of mortality in infants with oesophageal atresia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated intra vascular coagulation
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcers
Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness.
A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?
Your Answer: Chemotaxis
Correct Answer: Diapedesis
Explanation:The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:
1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel
2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls
3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion
4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product
5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?
Your Answer: 12%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl, haematocrit 37%, mean corpuscular volume 90 fl, platelet count 185 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 32 × 109/l; along with multiple, small mature lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:CLL or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common leukaemia seen in the Western world. Twice more common in men than women, the incidence of CLL increases with age. About 75% cases are seen in patients aged more than 60 years. The blood, marrow, spleen and lymph nodes all undergo infiltration, eventually leading to haematopoiesis (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and decreased production of immunoglobulin. In 98% cases, CD+5 B cells undergo malignant transformation.
Often diagnosed on blood tests while being evaluated for lymphadenopathy, CLL causes symptoms like fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, pallor, dyspnoea on exertion, abdominal fullness or distension. Findings include multiple lymphadenopathy with minimal-to- moderate hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Increased susceptibility to infections is seen. Herpes Zoster is common. Diffuse or maculopapular skin infiltration can also be seen in T-cell CLL.
Diagnosis is by examination of peripheral blood smear and marrow: hallmark being a sustained, absolute leucocytosis (>5 ×109/l) and increased lymphocytes in the marrow (>30%). Other findings can include hypogammaglobulinemia (<15% of cases) and, rarely, raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Only 10% cases demonstrate moderate anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related to :
Your Answer: The resistance of the patient
Correct Answer: Toxin and enzyme production
Explanation:The pathogenicity of an organism or its ability to cause disease is determined by its virulence factors. Many bacteria produce virulence factors that inhibit the host’s immune system. The virulence factors of bacteria are typically proteins or other molecules that are synthesized by enzymes. These proteins are coded for by genes in chromosomal DNA, bacteriophage DNA or plasmids. The proteins made by the bacteria can poison the host cells and cause tissue damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found to have a hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter that does not completely relax on swallowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) to relax that is caused by the degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the oesophageal wall. It is classified as either primary (idiopathic) or secondary (in the context of another disease). In patients with achalasia, the chief complaint is dysphagia to both solids and liquids, although regurgitation, retrosternal pain, and weight loss may also occur. Upper endoscopy, barium esophagram, and oesophageal manometry play complementary roles in the diagnosis of achalasia. While upper endoscopy and/or barium esophagram are often obtained initially, manometry usually confirms the diagnosis, and upper endoscopy is indicated to rule out a malignant underlying cause. In good surgical candidates, achalasia is usually treated with pneumatic dilation or myotomy. In most other cases, an injection of botulinum toxin is attempted. If these measures fail to provide relief, medical therapy (e.g., nifedipine) is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also complains of frequent urge to defecate and pain before and during defecation. A sigmoidoscopy is arranged which reveals necrosis and ulceration of the descending colon mucosa. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Infection with enteroinvasive E. coli
Explanation:Necrosis and ulcers of the colon are a feature of infection with enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). It presents with a dysentery-type illness similar to shigellosis.
E. coli have different strains that cause a wide range of conditions. The four main types are:
1. Enteropathogenic E. coli—cause watery diarrhoea, vomiting, and low-grade fever
2. Enteroinvasive E. coli—cause dysentery, large bowel necrosis, and ulcers
3. Enterotoxigenic E. coli—cause traveller’s diarrhoea
4. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7—cause haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 25
Correct
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In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?
Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation:A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour does the patient most likely have?
Your Answer: Liposarcoma
Explanation:Liposarcoma is a cancer that arises in fat cells in deep soft tissue. Commonly it occurs inside the thigh or retroperitoneum. It usually affects middle-aged and older adults, over 40 years. Liposarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma. It is very radio resistant. Five-year survival rates vary from 100% to 56% based on histological subtype.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Correct
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If a 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation dies suddenly, which of these is the most likely cause of death?
Your Answer: Thromboembolism
Explanation:In atrial fibrillation, the abnormal atrial contraction can cause blood to stagnate in the left atrium and form a thrombus, which may then embolize. The patient’s history of AF suggest an embolic disease, which lead to his death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?
Your Answer: Lateral pterygoid muscle
Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
Explanation:The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?
Your Answer: Angio-oedema
Explanation:Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?
Your Answer: Vastus intermedius
Explanation:The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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