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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders

      The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.

      Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.

      In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone pains, headaches, and nerve entrapment syndromes that have been bothering him for several years. His blood work reveals an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and his urine test shows an increased urinary hydroxyproline. The X-ray of his skull displays a mix of lysis and sclerosis with thickened trabeculae. What medication would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonates to inhibit osteoclastic activity

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Oral Bisphosphonates and More

      Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, which can lead to a range of symptoms including bone pain, fractures, and osteoarthritis. Diagnosis is typically made through radiograph findings and laboratory tests. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of symptoms, with physiotherapy and NSAIDs being effective for mild cases. However, for more severe cases, oral bisphosphonates and calcitonin may be necessary to inhibit osteoclastic activity. Chelation therapy, antidepressant medication, and chemotherapy for osteosarcoma are not indicated for Paget’s disease. Operative therapy may be necessary for patients with degenerative joint disease and pathological fractures, but should be preceded by treatment with oral bisphosphonates or calcitonin to reduce bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in one month’s time. She has a past medical history significant for rheumatoid arthritis (RA), for which she takes methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine.
      Which of the following investigations would be most important before the patient’s operation?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Correct Answer: Cervical spine X-rays

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Pre-Operative Testing for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) require special considerations before undergoing elective surgery. One important test to consider is a cervical spine X-ray, as RA can lead to subluxation and instability in the cervical spine. This is particularly important for patients who will be intubated during surgery, as neck manipulation can exacerbate any underlying instability.

      Another important consideration for RA patients is regular eye exams to test for retinal toxicity, especially for those taking hydroxychloroquine as part of their treatment regimen. However, this is not necessarily required before elective surgery.

      While rheumatoid factor levels and anti-citrullinated protein antibody levels can be elevated in RA patients, they are not the most important tests to consider before surgery. Instead, a plain film of the cervical spine should be the primary investigation for patients with a history of RA.

      Overall, pre-operative testing for RA patients should be tailored to their specific needs and potential risks during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis

      Explanation:

      Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics

      Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.

      Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.

      Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Different Arthritis Types

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, Reactive arthritis is characterized by uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that does not involve the DIP. Gout, another type of arthritis, does not typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a MCP and PIP arthritis. Lastly, bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself. the characteristics of different types of arthritis can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
      Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.

      In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.

      On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 99 g/L (130-180)

      WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)

      ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)

      Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Correct Answer: Behçet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome

      Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.

      One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.

      Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.

      Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (4/10) 40%
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