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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old nurse is admitted for prolonged fasting. She presented to clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old nurse is admitted for prolonged fasting. She presented to clinic with a six-month history of episodic sweating and light-headedness, which were relieved by eating. During one of these episodes, her blood glucose level was measured at 2 mmol/L, and she quickly recovered after taking glucose tablets. On examination, no abnormalities were found, and her vital signs were within normal limits. She was admitted for a 72-hour fast, during which she developed typical symptoms 16 hours in. Her blood glucose level was measured at 2.2 mmol/L, and the fast was stopped. Blood tests revealed a plasma glucose level of 1.8 mmol/L, 3 beta-hydroxybutyrate level of 0.5 mmol/L, insulin level of 450 pmol/L, and C peptide level of 0.2 nmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia due to insulin treatment

      Explanation:

      Insulin Induced Hypoglycaemia

      This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemia, which is being caused by insulin. The suppression of 3 beta-hydroxybutyrate, a ketone, and the elevated insulin levels indicate that this is insulin induced hypoglycaemia. Additionally, the suppressed C peptide suggests that the insulin is being administered exogenously.

      If sulphonylureas were the cause of the hypoglycaemia, there would be raised insulin and C peptides. In cases where there is suspicion of sulphonylureas being the cause, measuring a sulphonylurea concentration can be helpful.

      Insulinoma, on the other hand, would be associated with proportionately elevated insulin and C peptide levels.

      Overall, the combination of suppressed 3 beta-hydroxybutyrate, elevated insulin, and suppressed C peptide points towards insulin induced hypoglycaemia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old Indian patient presents to the emergency department with facial tetany, muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Indian patient presents to the emergency department with facial tetany, muscle cramps and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. This is her third admission with similar symptoms. Her past medical history includes diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis with gastrointestinal, cutaneous and pulmonary manifestations. She was also diagnosed with vitamin D deficiency three years ago and receives regular vitamin D supplements.

      Her blood tests are as follows:

      Hb 124 g/l
      WBC 8.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 4.3 mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      CRP 15 mg/l
      Corrected calcium 1.68 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.4 mmol/l
      Magnesium 0.28 mmol/l
      PTH 2 pmol/L (normal range = 8.5-12)
      Amylase 14 u/l

      Her symptoms improve with intravenous calcium replacement and intravenous magnesium replacement, correcting both electrolytes to within normal range. What is the underlying cause for these metabolic disturbances in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia is caused by a deficiency in magnesium.

      The reason behind the patient’s hypomagnesaemia and hypocalcaemia, despite regular vitamin D supplementation and normal renal function, is being investigated. Low levels of parathyroid hormone are likely due to reduced release caused by insufficient magnesium absorption resulting from GI systemic sclerosis. There is no indication of primary hypoparathyroidism or chronic pancreatitis in the patient’s medical history.

      Understanding Hypocalcaemia: Causes and Management

      Hypocalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. The majority of cases can be diagnosed by combining the clinical history with parathyroid hormone levels. The causes of hypocalcaemia include vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, rhabdomyolysis, magnesium deficiency, massive blood transfusion, and acute pancreatitis. It is important to note that contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also lead to falsely low calcium levels.

      Severe hypocalcaemia can lead to carpopedal spasm, tetany, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, and requires immediate IV calcium replacement. The preferred method is with intravenous calcium gluconate, administered as 10 ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes. It is important to monitor the patient’s ECG during this process. Intravenous calcium chloride is not recommended as it is more likely to cause local irritation. Further management of hypocalcaemia depends on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with multiple swellings in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with multiple swellings in her neck. She was referred urgently by her GP after thyroid function tests showed an overactive thyroid. She has a past medical history of appendicectomy and asthma, and uses a salbutamol inhaler when she becomes unwell with viral and coryzal infections. However, she has been experiencing weight loss, tremor and amenorrhoea. During examination, several painful nodules were found in her goitre. She is worried about the possibility of having cancer. What aspects of her medical history suggest that malignancy is unlikely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical and biochemical evidence of hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancy is not typically associated with changes in thyroid function, such as hypo or hyperthyroidism. Therefore, a diagnosis of toxic multinodular goitre may be more probable. However, papillary thyroid cancer is more common in young women, which is considered a risk factor rather than a protective factor. Additionally, papillary, medullary, and anaplastic thyroid malignancies may present with multiple nodules.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to polycystic kidney disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to polycystic kidney disease presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue. He is currently taking lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension.

      Upon examination, his blood pressure is 146/92 mmHg and he appears pale and fatigued. His pulse is regular at 78 bpm.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hemoglobin: 110 g/L
      - White blood cell count: 6.2 × 10^9/L
      - Platelet count: 200 × 10^9/L
      - Sodium: 140 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 5.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 245 µmol/L
      - Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 1.2 U/L (normal range: 0.5-4.5)
      - Total T4: 50 nmol/L (normal range: 58-161)
      - Free T4: 22 pmol/L (normal range: 9-27)
      - Total T3: 0.9 nmol/L (normal range: 0.9-2.8)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxine-binding globulin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine-Binding Globulin Deficiency: A Non-Harmful Condition

      Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) deficiency is a non-harmful condition that can be acquired or inherited. TBG is one of the three main proteins that carry thyroid hormones in the blood. Inherited or acquired variations in the concentration and/or affinity of these proteins may produce substantial changes in serum total thyroid hormone levels as measured by commercially available assays. However, these changes do not result in illness because the concentration of free thyroid hormones does not change.

      A deficiency in thyroid hormone-binding proteins is suspected when abnormally low serum total thyroid hormone concentrations are encountered in clinically euthyroid subjects in the presence of normal serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Thyroid function tests (TFTs) in patients with TBG deficiency show normal TSH and free T4, but low total T4 and, occasionally, low total T3 serum concentrations.

      It is important to recognize TBG deficiency states and avoid unnecessary and potentially harmful thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Other conditions, such as sick euthyroid syndrome, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, pituitary failure, and iodine deficiency, have different thyroid function test results and require different management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old male presents to his doctor for a routine check-up and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male presents to his doctor for a routine check-up and expresses concern about his overall health. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years ago and has since been on a diet to manage it. He quit smoking a decade ago but still drinks about 20 units of alcohol per week. He is worried about his weight and his family history of diabetes, as his father and mother both had it and suffered from stroke and heart attack respectively.

      During the examination, his BMI is found to be 33.4 kg/m2, pulse is 82 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg. However, his cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal exams are normal except for central adiposity. His test results show normal full blood count, serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, and fasting plasma glucose. However, his alkaline phosphatase and serum triglycerides are high, while his aspartate transaminase and serum cholesterol are within normal range.

      Given his family history and risk factors, what is the best approach to reduce the likelihood of this patient developing diabetes mellitus in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with orlistat and diet

      Explanation:

      Orlistat and Diet Combination Reduces Diabetes Risk in Obese Patients with Metabolic Syndrome

      This patient is at high risk of developing diabetes mellitus in the future due to having the metabolic syndrome and impaired fasting glucose. The metabolic syndrome is characterized by hypertension, central adiposity, hyperlipidemia, fatty liver, and pre-diabetes. The patient’s elevated transaminases are likely due to fatty liver and/or alcohol consumption.

      According to the XENDOS study, combining orlistat with a healthy diet can reduce the risk of diabetes in obese patients with the metabolic syndrome by 38% more than just following a healthy diet and taking a placebo. This finding highlights the potential benefits of using orlistat as an adjunct therapy for obese patients with the metabolic syndrome who are at high risk of developing diabetes. By reducing the risk of diabetes, patients can improve their overall health outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman comes to you with a complaint of worsening coordination over...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to you with a complaint of worsening coordination over the past three months. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 124/74 mmHg. The only notable findings are right-sided dysdiadokinesis with nystagmus and a tendency to fall to the right. Additionally, you observe several café-au-lait spots. Which of the following potential causes would NOT account for her lack of coordination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Neurofibromatosis Type 2

      This patient is showing signs of cerebellar ataxia, which, when combined with the skin changes, points towards a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis Type 2. This condition is linked to haemangiomas in the central nervous system, typically in the retina or cerebellum. While a pituitary tumour is a possibility, it would not account for the ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old male with a history of epilepsy, for which he is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male with a history of epilepsy, for which he is taking carbamazepine and has not had any seizures for the last two years, presents with irritability and nausea for the last 2 weeks. His wife says that he is often confused and seems to be lost most of the time. He takes alcohol occasionally and smokes ten to twelve cigarettes per day.

      On examination, he is irritable but conscious and alert. Clinical examination revealed eczema over the face, shins and extensor surfaces of the forearms and a tattoo on the right shoulder. There was no evidence of any peripheral oedema.

      Lab reports were as follows:

      Hb 150 g/l
      MCV 81 fl
      MCH 31 pg
      WBC 9 * 109/l
      Plt 250 * 109/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 µmol/l
      9:00 am Cortisol 345 nmol/l (170 700 nmol/l)
      TSH 2.4 mU/l
      Total T4 102 nmol/l (68 174 nmol/l)
      Na+ 119 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l

      What would be the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction to 500 - 1000 ml daily

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in the given scenario is SIADH caused by carbamazepine treatment. The presence of eczema is unrelated to the diagnosis but may complicate the management if demeclocycline is used due to the risk of photosensitive rashes.

      The initial treatment for SIADH is fluid restriction, which is effective in most cases. Demeclocycline is an option if fluid restriction is not tolerated or ineffective. Hypertonic saline is only used in severe, acute, and symptomatic cases. Intranasal desmopressin is used for diabetes insipidus, and thiazide diuretics are rarely used as alternative agents.

      The causes of SIADH include tumours (such as small cell lung cancer, prostate, thymus, pancreas, and lymphoma), pulmonary lesions (such as pneumonia, tuberculosis, and lung abscess), CNS causes (such as meningitis, tumours, head injury, subdural haematoma, cerebral abscess, SLE, and vasculitis), metabolic causes (such as alcohol withdrawal and porphyrias), and drugs (such as carbamazepine, chlorpropamide, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and phenothiazines).

      Hyponatremia is a condition where the sodium levels in the blood are too low. If left untreated, it can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat hyponatremia promptly. The treatment plan depends on various factors such as the duration and severity of hyponatremia, symptoms, and the suspected cause. Over-rapid correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which is a serious complication.

      Initial steps in treating hyponatremia involve ruling out any errors in the test results and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment plan varies based on the suspected cause. If it is hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If it is euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If it is hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be considered.

      For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring in a hospital setting. Hypertonic saline is used to correct the sodium levels more quickly than in chronic cases. Vaptans, which act on V2 receptors, can be used but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease.

      It is important to avoid over-correction of severe hyponatremia as it can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include dysarthria, dysphagia, paralysis, seizures, confusion, and coma. Therefore, sodium levels should only be raised by 4 to 6 mmol/L in a 24-hour period to prevent this complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 8 - What is the primary reason for hyperandrogenism in women who are in their...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary reason for hyperandrogenism in women who are in their reproductive years?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      PCOS: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Biochemical Profile

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common condition that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by ovarian dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries. To diagnose PCOS, at least two of the following three criteria must be met: oligomenorrhoea or anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasonography. Other conditions that can cause similar symptoms must be ruled out.

      The typical biochemical profile in PCOS includes mild-moderate elevations in free and total testosterone, elevated dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S), and low sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) concentrations. In some cases, the luteinising hormone (LH) concentration is elevated while the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) concentration remains normal, resulting in an elevated LH:FSH ratio.

      It is important to note that PCOS can have a significant impact on a woman’s reproductive and overall health. Therefore, early diagnosis and management are crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the hospital with acute epigastric abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the hospital with acute epigastric abdominal pain that radiates to her back and nausea. The medical team suspects acute pancreatitis and initiates intravenous fluids. The patient's vital signs are stable with a blood pressure of 130/75 mmHg, pulse of 90 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 96%.

      Laboratory tests are conducted and reveal:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 13.8 g/l
      - Platelets: 190 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 8.9 * 109/l
      - Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 95 µmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 11 µmol/l
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 40 u/l
      - Alanine transaminase (ALT): 35 u/l
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase (γGT): 45 u/l
      - Albumin: 49 g/l
      - Triglycerides: 12.5 mmol/l
      - High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol: 1.2 mmol/l
      - Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol: 3.6 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Fibrates are the preferred medication for managing hypertriglyceridaemia, which is the underlying cause of the patient’s acute pancreatitis. They are particularly effective when triglyceride levels are elevated enough to trigger this condition.

      Understanding Primary Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Primary hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that is typically caused by a combination of genetic factors. However, it can also be caused by a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase. This condition is characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood, which can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

      To manage primary hypertriglyceridaemia, fibrates are usually the first-line treatment. These medications work by reducing the production of triglycerides in the liver. Statins may also be used to lower triglyceride levels, especially in cases of mixed hyperlipidaemia. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus seeks advice on fasting during...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus seeks advice on fasting during Ramadan. He is a devout Muslim and currently manages his diabetes with a combination of diet and metformin 500mg tds. His most recent HbA1c was 6.4% (46 mmol/mol). What is the best recommendation regarding his metformin if he decides to fast during Ramadan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin 500mg before sunrise, 1g after sunset

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, the metformin dose should be divided into three parts, with one-third taken before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds taken after sunset.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 49-year-old man comes for a diabetes check-up after being prescribed metformin 500mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes for a diabetes check-up after being prescribed metformin 500mg TDS. His latest HbA1c reading is 48 mmol/mol and he has not experienced any hypoglycaemic episodes.

      The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. He is currently taking apixaban, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and ramipril.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing his diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      For patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus who have a high risk of cardiovascular disease, chronic heart failure, or new cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to introduce an SGLT-2 inhibitor such as dapagliflozin once they have been established on metformin and have no contraindications. This recommendation applies to our patient who has a background of heart failure and is at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease due to being on apixaban for atrial fibrillation. Using glimepiride or sitagliptin as an adjunct is not necessary as our patient is meeting his HbA1c target.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient does not achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the diabetes clinic....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the diabetes clinic. He is currently on metformin 1g bd and has a history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. His HbA1c was 44 mmol/mol (6.2%) one year ago and is now 46 mmol/mol (6.4%). What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Make no changes

      Explanation:

      There is no need to make any changes to this man’s glycaemic control as it meets the standards set by NICE guidance and recent research that highlights the negative effects of excessive glycaemic control.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient does not achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 35 year-old man presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old man presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. He has no recollection of the event but family members report no incontinence or seizures. The patient has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, pulse is 72 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 18, and temperature is 37.2ºC. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable, and his abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      Laboratory tests reveal:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 2.9 mmol/l
      Urea 5.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l
      Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
      Renin low
      Aldosterone low

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      This individual is diagnosed with Liddle’s syndrome, a genetic condition that causes high blood pressure along with low potassium levels, metabolic alkalosis, reduced plasma renin activity, and suppressed aldosterone secretion. The most effective treatment for hypertension and hypokalemia in this case is amiloride, which directly targets sodium channels, unlike spironolactone that works on mineralocorticoid receptors.

      Understanding Liddle’s Syndrome

      Liddle’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is a rare condition that causes hypertension and hypokalaemic alkalosis. The condition is believed to be caused by a malfunction in the sodium channels in the distal tubules of the kidneys, which leads to an increased reabsorption of sodium. This, in turn, causes an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in potassium levels in the body.

      The treatment for Liddle’s syndrome involves the use of medications such as amiloride or triamterene. These medications work by blocking the sodium channels in the kidneys, which helps to reduce the reabsorption of sodium and increase the excretion of potassium. With proper treatment, individuals with Liddle’s syndrome can manage their blood pressure and potassium levels effectively. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop a treatment plan that is tailored to their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of pain in his left hip and pelvis. He has a medical history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and is currently taking finasteride. Upon examination, there are no notable findings except for a limp and limited hip flexion on the left side due to bony pain. The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin level of 117 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 8.1 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 196 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 112 µmol/L (79-118), alkaline phosphatase of 322 U/L (39-117), and calcium of 2.3 mmol/L (2.20-2.61). Which treatment option is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risedronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease and Osteoporosis

      This patient’s symptoms and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, despite normal calcium levels, suggest a diagnosis of Paget’s disease. Bisphosphonates have been shown to effectively alleviate symptoms of pain and reduce serum alkaline phosphatase levels, which serve as a marker of disease activity. On the other hand, calcium and vitamin D, denosumab, and teriparatide are all viable treatment options for osteoporosis.

      It is important to note that cyproterone acetate, an anti-androgen, may be useful in treating prostatic carcinoma, but it is not relevant to the current case. In summary, the appropriate treatment for Paget’s disease involves bisphosphonates, while osteoporosis can be managed with calcium and vitamin D, denosumab, or teriparatide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 72 year old man was admitted to hospital with symptoms of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man was admitted to hospital with symptoms of shortness of breath, productive cough and palpitations. Upon examination, a chest x-ray revealed a left lower lobe pneumonia and an ECG showed atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response. The patient was treated with intravenous antibiotics, fluids and oral digoxin loading, which resulted in significant improvement in his condition. During a follow-up examination, a repeat ECG showed that the patient had cardioverted back to sinus rhythm and digoxin therapy was discontinued. Thyroid function tests were ordered to investigate the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation, with the following results:

      - Haemoglobin: 130 g/dL
      - White cell count: 12.5* 109/L
      - Neutrophils: 10.8* 109/L
      - Platelets: 320* 109/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 120 micromol/L
      - Sodium: 140 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - C-reactive protein: 95 mg/L
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone: 0.3 microU/L
      - T4 free serum: 13.8 pmol/L
      - T3 free serum: 6.9 pmol/L

      What is the most appropriate next investigation to assess the patient's deranged thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat TFT in 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Sick euthyroid is a common occurrence in elderly patients who are unwell, and it typically does not require any treatment. When a person experiences an acute and severe illness, their thyroid hormone deiodination may be altered due to cytokine effects, resulting in changes in TSH, fT3, and fT4 levels. In hospitalized patients, low TSH levels are three times more likely to be caused by this effect rather than hyperthyroidism. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid thyroid function testing during an acute illness unless there is clear clinical evidence of a primary thyroid illness. If TFT levels remain abnormal after recovery from the acute illness, further investigation to assess for thyroid disease may be necessary.

      Understanding Sick Euthyroid Syndrome

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as non-thyroidal illness, is a condition where the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3 are often low. However, it is important to note that in most cases, the TSH level is still within the normal range, which is considered inappropriate given the low levels of thyroxine and T3. This condition is reversible and typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying systemic illness. As such, treatment is usually not necessary.

      Understanding sick euthyroid syndrome is important for healthcare professionals as it can often be misdiagnosed as hypothyroidism. It is crucial to differentiate between the two conditions to avoid unnecessary treatment and potential harm to the patient. Additionally, recognizing sick euthyroid syndrome can aid in the diagnosis and management of the underlying systemic illness. Proper management of the underlying illness is key to resolving the thyroid abnormalities associated with sick euthyroid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with complaints of lethargy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with complaints of lethargy and weight loss over the past three months. He has a history of diabetes mellitus for the past six years and is currently taking gliclazide 160 mg daily and metformin 1 g twice daily. On examination, his BMI is 25.6 kg/m2, pulse is 88 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 164/102 mmHg. Fundal examination reveals dot haemorrhages in the temporal retina of both eyes with occasional hard exudates. Loss of position and vibration sensation are noted to the mid tibia bilaterally.

      Further investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/L, white cell count of 4.8 ×109/L, platelets of 195 ×109/L, serum sodium of 137 mmol/L, serum potassium of 4.6 mmol/L, serum urea of 16.7 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 220 µmol/L, HbA1c of 78 mmol/mol (9.3%), and urinalysis showing protein++ and blood+.

      What is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop metformin and gliclazide and start insulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Weight Loss and Poor Glycaemic Control

      In the case of a patient with weight loss, modest BMI, and poor glycaemic control with established retinopathy and nephropathy, switching to insulin is recommended. While some authorities suggest stopping metformin in patients with a creatinine above 150 µmol/L, many patients continue on metformin with higher creatinine levels without any negative effects. Adding pioglitazone to either metformin or gliclazide would provide little benefit as the patient’s current issue appears to be insulinopenia, leading to weight loss and osmotic symptoms. Maximising oral hypoglycaemic agents, which are already at near-maximum doses, would also be of little benefit. Given the symptoms of insulinopaenia, a GLP-1 agonist is unlikely to be effective in this case.

      Overall, the best course of action for this patient would be to switch to insulin therapy to improve glycaemic control and address the underlying issue of insulinopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman comes to you with persistent vomiting that she experiences every...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to you with persistent vomiting that she experiences every day. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and has 3+ ketones in her urine. Despite taking cyclizine prescribed by her GP, she has not found any relief. You suspect that she may be suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum. In addition to administering anti-emetics and rehydration, what other medication should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      The administration of intravenous dextrose infusion can lead to the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Furthermore, patients often have low levels of sodium, necessitating the use of 0.9% sodium chloride.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man presents to clinic with complaints of tiredness, weakness, and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to clinic with complaints of tiredness, weakness, and loss of body hair. He recently went through a divorce and attributes the loss of sexual function as one reason for the split. He has a history of mild essential hypertension and takes amlodipine. On examination, his pulse is 90 bpm and BP is 100/50 mmHg. He has normal secondary sexual characteristics, but his body hair is fine and sparse. Additionally, he has bitemporal hemianopia. Routine bloods show mildly elevated potassium of 5.5 mmol/l, and TSH is within the normal range. What would be the most useful test from those listed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum prolactin

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Workup for Pituitary Macroadenoma: Importance of Serum Prolactin

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of a pituitary macroadenoma, the diagnostic workup should include several tests to confirm the diagnosis and evaluate the most appropriate treatment approach. In this case, the patient’s normal appearance suggests a differential diagnosis of prolactinoma or non-functioning pituitary adenoma. Therefore, serum prolactin is of great importance in the initial evaluation.

      After serum prolactin, the next most important test is a Synacthen™ test to measure cortisol reserve. An MRI of the pituitary is also necessary to document the size and invasion of the tumor, but this should be done after the serum prolactin and Synacthen™ tests to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other tests, such as a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test for Cushing syndrome or an insulin tolerance test for growth hormone deficiency, are not appropriate at this stage. Random serum cortisol and serum glucose measurements are also unlikely to be helpful in the workup for a possible pituitary tumor.

      In summary, the diagnostic workup for a pituitary macroadenoma should prioritize serum prolactin, Synacthen™ test, and MRI of the pituitary to confirm the diagnosis and evaluate the most appropriate treatment approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and occasional episodes of palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and occasional episodes of palpitations is seen in the clinic with unintentional weight loss and hand tremors. She is found to be clinically hyperthyroid. She takes lisinopril and metoprolol.
      The following results are obtained from her investigations:

      Thyroxine (T4) 110 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.01 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      A thyroid ultrasound with color flow Doppler reveals increased blood flow.
      What would be the recommended next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen and venous ultrasound lower limbs

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with pulmonary hypertension, it is important to determine whether it is primary or secondary, as the underlying cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension may be treatable. In this case, the patient has bilateral leg oedema and left leg varicosities, suggesting that this is likely secondary pulmonary hypertension, possibly due to chronic venous thromboembolism. Therefore, ultrasound scanning of the lower limb and abdomen would be prudent to confirm left leg deep vein thrombosis and look for any potential sources of inferior vena cava obstruction.While left heart catheterisation and high-resolution CT chest are reasonable options, they are less likely to provide additional diagnostic evidence in this case. Right heart catheterisation may provide more detail regarding pressures, but it will not give us more information regarding the aetiology of the patient’s pulmonary hypertension. A sleep study is also a reasonable option, but ruling out chronic venous thromboembolism should be the first step given the patient’s history.Overall, choosing the right investigations for pulmonary hypertension requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to determine the most appropriate diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer and bone metastases is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer and bone metastases is admitted to the hospital, complaining of generalised abdominal pain and presenting with some confusion. Various blood tests are conducted, including the following:

      Calcium 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)

      Despite aggressive intravenous fluid rehydration (4-6 litres per day) and the administration of Pamidronic acid, the treatment proves to be ineffective. A repeat blood test shows a similar result:

      Calcium 3.18 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)

      What would be the most reasonable next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      If intravenous fluid treatment and pamidronate therapy are ineffective in treating refractory hypercalcaemia of malignancy, subcutaneous calcitonin may be considered as the next step. Loop diuretics like furosemide may be used in some cases, but calcitonin is more appropriate for this patient. Trying another bisphosphonate like ibandronic acid would not be recommended after pamidronate has failed. Increasing fluid intake beyond the current 4-6 litres per 24 hours would not be advisable as it may lead to fluid overload.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female presents with complaints of tiredness and poor appetite. She gave...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents with complaints of tiredness and poor appetite. She gave birth to a healthy baby 3 months ago and is currently breastfeeding. During her pregnancy, she required iron for anaemia but is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. There is no significant family history. On examination, she has a BMI of 24 kg/m2, a pulse of 96 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/70 mmHg. A small goitre is palpable, but no bruit is audible. She has a slight tremor of her outstretched hands. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 105 g/L (115-165), an ESR (Westergren) of 21 mm/1st hour (0-20), and abnormal thyroid function tests with elevated T4 and T3 levels and a low TSH level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpartum thryoiditis

      Explanation:

      Postpartum thyroiditis affects 5% of women and is characterized by transient hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism, potentially leading to permanent hypothyroidism. The cause is unknown but may involve auto-immunity. Treatment for hyperthyroidism is usually conservative. De Quervain’s thyroiditis presents with tender thyroid enlargement and constitutional symptoms, with normal thyroid function tests and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

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      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old female who is a retired teacher presents to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female who is a retired teacher presents to the Emergency department with sudden difficulty breathing after a long flight. She has not experienced any other health issues recently.
      During the examination, her pulse is found to be 98 bpm, her oxygen saturation is 92% on air, and her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Her legs and chest appear normal.
      The medical team suspects a pulmonary embolism and starts her on IV heparin therapy. A VQ scan confirms the diagnosis.
      Despite not showing any signs of thyrotoxicosis, the doctors perform thyroid function tests due to her previous occupation. The results show:
      TSH 1.5 mU/L (0.35-5.0)
      free T4 44.2 pmol/L (9.8-21.2)
      free T3 6.5 pmol/L (3.5-6.8)
      What is the probable cause of the abnormal thyroid function tests in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin treatment

      Explanation:

      Heparin’s Effect on Thyroxine Levels

      Heparin has been found to have an in vitro effect on thyroxine (T4) levels, meaning that it affects the levels of T4 in a laboratory setting. When administered intravenously, heparin can interfere with thyroid function tests, sometimes causing bound thyroid hormone to be displaced. However, these test results do not indicate primary hyperthyroidism, as the thyroid-stimulating hormone is not suppressed. Instead, they suggest subclinical hyperthyroidism, which is characterized by low or suppressed TSH levels and normal T4 levels.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential effects of heparin on thyroid function tests and to interpret results carefully in order to accurately diagnose and treat thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with left flank pain and intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with left flank pain and intermittent sweats that improve with eating. He has also fainted between meals. A technically difficult ultrasound reveals a 3 cm mass in the tail of the pancreas. A CT scan confirms the mass and blood biochemistry is normal. A blood glucose test after an overnight fast and exercise bike session shows a reading of 2 mmol/l. A CT guided needle biopsy of the pancreas shows ill-defined nests of cells that stain positive for chromogranin and synaptophysin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic endocrine tumours are rare neoplasms that arise from the islet cells of the pancreas. Among them, insulinomas are the most common, accounting for about 50% of cases. Insulinomas can cause neurological or psychiatric symptoms, which usually occur at night or early in the morning. Diagnosis is made by measuring high levels of insulin and C-peptide in the blood, along with a low blood glucose level and typical symptoms of hypoglycaemia. Somatostatinomas, on the other hand, are associated with glucose intolerance, gallstones, diarrhoea, and steatorrhoea. VIPomas cause large-volume secretory diarrhoea, while gastrinomas lead to the development of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and multiple peptic ulcers. Finally, glucagonomas are associated with glucose intolerance, venous thromboembolic disease, and a characteristic rash called necrolytic erythema migrans. In conclusion, pancreatic endocrine tumours can have different symptoms and clinical presentations, and their diagnosis requires a careful evaluation of hormonal levels and associated conditions.

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      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman complains of increasing neck discomfort for the past 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of increasing neck discomfort for the past 2 months. She has no significant medical or family history. Upon examination, a solid neck mass is noted that moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. Further evaluation with ultrasound and fine needle aspiration reveals a 2.5cm papillary thyroid cancer. A CT scan of the neck shows a solitary lymph node in the left anterior cervical chain. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy and neck dissection with postoperative radioiodine ablation

      Explanation:

      Thyroid tumours are often detected by patients who feel a lump in their neck or during unrelated neck imaging. They are most commonly found in young females and can be diagnosed through fine needle aspiration. Treatment decisions are based on the size of the tumour and whether lymph nodes are involved. If the lump is larger than 1 cm or shows signs of metastasis, a thyroidectomy is recommended instead of a lobectomy. For patients at high risk of recurrence, concurrent radioiodine ablation after surgery can improve survival rates. The American Thyroid Association and a European consensus group both recommend this approach. Patients with tumours larger than 4cm, tumours between 1 and 4 cm with extra-thyroid disease, or those with aggressive histological subtypes should also receive radioiodine ablation. In the case of a patient with a 2.5cm tumour and lymph node involvement, thyroidectomy, lymph node clearance with neck dissection, and postoperative radioiodine ablation are appropriate. Annual monitoring is not a safe option.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 76-year-old man with metastatic lung carcinoma presents with increasing lethargy and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man with metastatic lung carcinoma presents with increasing lethargy and a number of falls. He describes feeling very unsteady on standing from his bed. His appetite has been poor and he has vomited two times each day for the past three days. There is no diarrhoea or abdominal pain and he denies any shortness of breath. He takes regular paracetamol for pain and omeprazole for dyspepsia.

      On examination, he is a tanned gentleman with cachexia. He appears pale with dry mucosa and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is reduced air entry at the right base with bronchial breathing overlying. His heart sounds are normal and his capillary refill time is prolonged to 4 seconds. Bloods pressure is 85/65 mmHg, heart rate 86/min, respiratory rate 23/min

      Hb 102 g/l Na+ 129 mmol/l
      Platelets 189 * 109/l K+ 5.0 mmol/l
      WBC 5.6* 109/l Urea 7.2 mmol/l
      Neuts 4.2 * 109/l Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Lymphs 0.7 * 109/l CRP 32 mg/l
      Eosin 0.1 * 109/l

      CT-chest-abdomen-pelvis There is a 4cm mass in the right lower lobe with extension to adjacent pleura. Bilateral pleural effusions are present. There is mediastinal lymphadenopathy and enlargement of para-aortic nodes with masses seen in both adrenals. Findings are in keeping with a primary lung malignancy with metastatic spread

      What is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease can be caused by metastatic malignancy. The patient in question is experiencing a state of shock with inadequate peripheral perfusion. Although pneumonia is a possibility, there are no indications of sepsis or consolidation on CT. Hyponatremia can be caused by SIADH and PPIs, but they do not lead to cardiovascular collapse. Terminal decline is a diagnosis that is made only after excluding other possibilities. The patient has metastatic deposits in both adrenal glands, which can impair function and cause Addison’s disease. Additionally, he exhibits hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia, all of which are symptoms of Addison’s disease.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology department with neck pain and abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology department with neck pain and abnormal thyroid function tests. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and takes lithium. She smokes five cigarettes daily and is currently unemployed. Six weeks ago, she gave birth to her first child and has recently recovered from a cold. She is not breastfeeding. On examination, there is a tender swelling in her neck, and she is sweaty, mildly tremulous, and tachycardic. Blood tests reveal a low TSH and high free T4, and a radioactive iodine uptake scan shows globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this woman is De Quervain’s thyroiditis, which is characterized by initial hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, and globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. These symptoms are consistent with viral subacute thyroiditis, which is often preceded by a coryzal illness and elevated inflammatory markers such as CRP. Factitious hyperthyroidism, Grave’s disease, and lithium-associated thyroiditis are not the correct diagnoses based on the presented symptoms.

      Understanding Subacute (De Quervain’s) Thyroiditis

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis and subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism, while the third phase, which lasts for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. The fourth phase is when the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, a thyroid scintigraphy is usually performed, which shows a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. Treatment for subacute thyroiditis is usually not required, as the condition is self-limiting. However, if thyroid pain is present, it may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs. In more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction are present.

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      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department.

    She has been experiencing increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department.

      She has been experiencing increasing fatigue for the past few months and is now suffering from persistent vomiting. She has lost 6 kg over three months.

      During examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular. She appears tanned and has a BMI of 21.

      Investigations reveal the following results:
      - Haemoglobin: 122 g/L (115-160)
      - White cell count: 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 222 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 130 mmol/L (135-146)
      - Potassium: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5)
      - Creatinine: 132 µmol/L (79-118)

      Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Adrenal Insufficiency as the Likely Cause of Hyponatraemia, Weight Loss, and Skin Pigmentation

      Hyponatraemia, weight loss, and skin pigmentation are symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. The initial management for this condition is steroid replacement. The most probable cause of this condition is autoimmune adrenal failure. Serum potassium levels may not be elevated due to gastrointestinal loss caused by vomiting.

      Fluid restriction and demeclocycline are not appropriate treatments for this condition as it is unlikely that the hyponatraemia is related to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Vasopressin is a treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus, which is not the case for this patient. While the patient may require IV fluids due to dehydration, normal saline is not the primary treatment.

      In summary, adrenal insufficiency is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. Steroid replacement is the initial management, and other treatments such as fluid restriction and demeclocycline are not appropriate. Vasopressin is not a suitable treatment for this condition, and normal saline is not the primary treatment for dehydration.

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      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old woman presents with a 4 month history of abdominal pains, low...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents with a 4 month history of abdominal pains, low mood and constipation. She has a past medical history of hypertension and depression following the death of her husband 3 years ago. During a routine visit to her GP, blood tests are performed and upon review, the patient is referred to the hospital.

      The blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 100 g/l
      Platelets 230 * 109/l
      WBC 10 * 109/l
      Calcium (adjusted) 2.96 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.35 mmol/l
      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 4.7 mmol/l
      Urea 6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l
      CRP 30 mg/l
      Albumin 35 g/L

      What is the first diagnostic test that should be conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone level

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy are the primary causes of hypercalcaemia, and distinguishing between them can be aided by measuring parathyroid hormone levels, which can guide subsequent investigations.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes since the age of 18 has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes since the age of 18 has an urgent appointment in the diabetes clinic. She has been managing her diabetes well with insulin and has no other medical issues. However, she recently discovered that she is pregnant and is worried about any potential harm to the fetus. She has no intention of terminating the pregnancy. She took two pregnancy tests after missing her period one week ago, both of which were positive. She has been taking a basal-bolus insulin regimen and atorvastatin. Her retinal screening and urine testing were done nine months ago, and her HbA1c was last measured three months ago at 39 mmol/mol. She has been advised to continue with her insulin but has stopped taking atorvastatin due to concerns about its effects during pregnancy. What is the best course of action to prevent diabetes-related complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for retinal screening

      Explanation:

      Patients who have diabetes and are pregnant should undergo retinal screening more frequently due to an increased risk of retinopathy. To ensure good diabetic control before planning for pregnancy, it is recommended to repeat the retinal screening and test the urine. If good diabetic control has not been achieved, contraception should be used, and termination should be offered if pregnancy occurs due to the higher risks involved. In this case, the patient has good diabetic control, as shown by the absence of complications and HbA1c levels. Drugs such as atorvastatin and ACE inhibitors should be stopped before pregnancy, and labetalol is a suitable option for blood pressure control. The insulin dose may not need to be adjusted, but blood glucose levels should be closely monitored during pregnancy. However, if the patient has not had retinal screening in the last six months, it is recommended to offer this urgently as diabetic retinopathy can develop rapidly during pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 58-year-old female presents with a cosmetic concern of a lump in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old female presents with a cosmetic concern of a lump in her neck. She reports no other symptoms and her past medical history includes hypertension and constipation. On examination, her neck lump is hard, non-tender and measures 2cm by 1 cm, moving with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. Her blood pressure is elevated at 213/130 mmHg. After an outpatient ultrasound and fine needle aspiration, she is admitted for further investigation due to persistent hypertension. She develops a mild headache which resolves on its own. A positive urinary metanephrine collection is obtained. What investigation is likely to produce the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic testing for RET mutation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.

      The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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