00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, is relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm with a decrease in amplitude during inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, preferably under echocardiographic guidance. A fluid challenge with sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. Ibuprofen is not effective in severe cases of pericardial effusion. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing myocardial infarction, which is a differential diagnosis to rule out. LMWH is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
      What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks

      Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’ chest pain radiating down the left arm. He is profusely sweating and looks ‘grey’. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and 3-mm ST elevation in V3–V6.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient aspirin, ticagrelor and low-molecular-weight heparin, followed by a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)

      When a patient presents with a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial. The gold standard treatment for a STEMI is a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), which should be performed as soon as possible. In the absence of contraindications, all patients should receive aspirin, ticagrelor, and low-molecular-weight heparin before undergoing PCI.

      Delaying PCI by treating the pain with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), aspirin, and oxygen, and reviewing the patient in 15 minutes is not recommended. Similarly, giving the patient aspirin, ticagrelor, and low molecular weight heparin without performing PCI is incomplete management.

      Thrombolysis therapy can be performed on patients without access to primary PCI. However, if primary PCI is available, it is the preferred treatment option.

      It is important to note that waiting for cardiac enzymes is not recommended as it would only result in a delay in definitive management. Early and appropriate treatment is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with STEMI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old patient is evaluated in the Pre-Assessment Clinic before undergoing elective surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old patient is evaluated in the Pre-Assessment Clinic before undergoing elective surgery for varicose veins. The patient is in good health, with the only significant medical history being well-controlled hypertension with lisinopril. During the examination, the clinician hears an early opening snap in diastole when listening to the patient's heart. What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Mitral Stenosis: This condition causes a mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope over the apex while the patient is lying in the left lateral position. Severe mitral stenosis can also cause a quiet first heart sound and an early opening snap.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: This condition causes a pan-systolic murmur.

      Mitral Valve Prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur.

      Right Bundle Branch Block: This condition is a cause of wide splitting of the second heart sound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 118 kg. During her last visit, her ECG showed atrial fibrillation (AF) with a heart rate of 180 bpm, and she was started on bisoprolol. She underwent a 48-hour ECG monitoring, which revealed non-paroxysmal AF. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure

      When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice for medication, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with either a novel oral anticoagulant or warfarin is also necessary. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may be reasonable, but considering the patient’s clinical presentation and past medical history, it may not be the best option. Amlodipine will not have an effect on rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Amiodarone should not be first-line treatment in this patient due to her heart failure. Overall, the best treatment option for AF in a patient with heart failure should be carefully considered based on the individual’s medical history and current condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
      Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.

      Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.

      While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past medical history. He is a smoker and has a family history of ischaemic heart disease: body mass index (BMI) 27.4, blood pressure (BP) 178/62 mmHg, fasting serum cholesterol 7.9 mmol/l (normal value < 5.17 mmol/l), triglycerides 2.2 mmol/l (normal value < 1.7 mmol/l), fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l (normal value 3.9–5.6 mmol/l).
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his cholesterol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      The primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) involves identifying and managing risk factors such as high cholesterol, smoking, hypertension, and family history of heart disease. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of these risk factors.

      Start Atorvastatin: NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to people with a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD. Atorvastatin is preferred over simvastatin due to its superior efficacy and side-effect profile.

      Reassure and Repeat in One Year: NICE advises using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk and starting treatment if the risk is >10%.

      Dietary Advice and Repeat in Six Months: Dietary advice should be offered to all patients, including reducing saturated fat intake, increasing mono-unsaturated fat intake, choosing wholegrain varieties of starchy food, reducing sugar intake, eating fruits and vegetables, fish, nuts, seeds, and legumes.

      Start Bezafibrate: NICE advises against routinely offering fibrates for the prevention of CVD to people being treated for primary prevention.

      Start Ezetimibe: Ezetimibe is not a first-line treatment for hyperlipidaemia, but people with primary hypercholesterolaemia should be considered for ezetimibe treatment.

      Overall, a combination of lifestyle changes and medication can effectively manage cardiovascular risk factors and prevent the development of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds on auscultation. Echocardiogram confirms a pericardial effusion.
      At which of the following sites does this effusion occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Site of Pericardial Effusion

      Pericardial effusion is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. To understand the site of pericardial effusion, it is important to know the layers of the pericardium.

      The pericardium has three layers: the fibrous pericardium, the parietal pericardium, and the visceral pericardium. The pericardial fluid is located in between the visceral and parietal pericardium, which is the site where a pericardial effusion occurs.

      It is important to note that pericardial effusion does not occur between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium, the visceral pericardium and the myocardium, the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura, or the fibrous pericardium and the central tendon of the diaphragm.

      In summary, pericardial effusion occurs at the site where pericardial fluid is normally produced – between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium. Understanding the site of pericardial effusion is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
      What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.

      Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.

      In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.

      - Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
      - Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure

      Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis

      There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.

      To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario

      Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
      During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur

      Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction

      The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is currently taking metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. He has gained weight over the past year and his HbA1c has worsened from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). The doctor is considering treating him with either insulin or pioglitazone. The patient is curious about the potential side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is a common side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can lead to fluid retention in approximately 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. Additionally, weight gain associated with pioglitazone is due to both fat accumulation and fluid retention. It is important to note that pioglitazone is not recommended for patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a known risk and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers.

      Sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a rash that is sensitive to sunlight.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, have been associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have an irregular pulse. He reports intermittent palpitations over the past two months, which come on around four to five times weekly and are troublesome. He has diet-controlled type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rate of 82 bpm. He has no chest pain and is not in overt cardiac failure. He is otherwise well and enjoys hill walking.
      What is the appropriate new pharmacological therapy for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and apixaban

      Explanation:

      Drug combinations for treating atrial fibrillation: A guide

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common heart condition that requires treatment to control heart rate and prevent stroke. Here are some drug combinations that may be used to manage AF:

      Bisoprolol and apixaban: This combination is recommended for patients who need both rate control and anticoagulation. Bisoprolol is a standard ĂŸ-blocker used for rate control, while apixaban is an anticoagulant that lowers the risk of stroke.

      Digoxin and warfarin: Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking. Warfarin is appropriate for anticoagulation.

      Bisoprolol and aspirin: Aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Bisoprolol should be used as first line for rate control.

      Digoxin and aspirin: Similar to the previous combination, aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking.

      Warfarin alone: Even though the patient’s heart rate is currently controlled, he has a history of symptomatic paroxysmal episodes of AF and will need an agent for rate control, as well as warfarin for anticoagulation.

      In summary, the choice of drug combination for managing AF depends on the patient’s individual needs and preferences, as well as their risk factors for stroke. It is important to discuss the options with a healthcare professional to make an informed decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the Emergency Department with diaphoresis, severe central chest pain, and breathlessness. An ECG showed ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Where is the probable location of the responsible arterial stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and Their Associated Leads

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. Each artery supplies a specific area of the heart and can be identified by the leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

      The right coronary artery supplies the inferior part of the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and right ventricle. The circumflex artery predominantly supplies the left free wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads I, aVL, and V5–6. The left anterior descending artery supplies the septum, apex, and anterior wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads V1–4.

      Proximal aortic stenosis is very rare and would cause problems of perfusion in distal organs before reducing enough blood supply to the heart to cause a myocardial infarction. The left main stem splits into both the circumflex and left anterior descending arteries. Acute occlusion at this location would be catastrophic and a person is unlikely to survive to hospital. It would be picked up by leads V1–6, I, and aVL.

      Understanding the specific areas of the heart supplied by each coronary artery and their associated leads on an ECG can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications Following Myocardial Infarction

      One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
      Investigation Patient Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
      Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio

      Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes occasional spontaneous episodes of being abnormally aware of her heart. She says her heart rate is markedly increased during episodes. She has no significant medical or family history. She is on the oral contraceptive pill. ECG is performed. She is in sinus rhythm at 80 beats per min. PR interval is 108 ms. A slurring slow rise of the initial portion of the QRS complex is noted; QRS duration is 125 ms.
      What is the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome: An Abnormal Congenital Accessory Pathway with Tachyarrhythmia Episodes

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a rare condition with an incidence of about 1.5 per 1000. It is characterized by the presence of an abnormal congenital accessory pathway that bypasses the atrioventricular node, known as the Bundle of Kent, and episodes of tachyarrhythmia. While the condition may be asymptomatic or subtle, it can increase the risk of sudden cardiac death.

      The presence of a pre-excitation pathway in WPW results in specific ECG changes, including shortening of the PR interval, a Delta wave, and QRS prolongation. The ST segment and T wave may also be discordant to the major component of the QRS complex. These features may be more pronounced with increased vagal tone.

      Upon diagnosis of WPW, risk stratification is performed based on a combination of history, ECG, and invasive cardiac electrophysiology studies. Treatment is only offered to those who are considered to have significant risk of sudden cardiac death. Definitive treatment involves the destruction of the abnormal electrical pathway by radiofrequency catheter ablation, which has a high success rate but is not without complication. Patients who experience regular tachyarrhythmias may be offered pharmacological treatment based on the specific arrhythmia.

      Other conditions, such as first-degree heart block, pulmonary embolism, hyperthyroidism, and Wenckebach syndrome, have different ECG findings and are not associated with WPW. Understanding the specific features of WPW can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke socially and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome.
      What is the earliest point at which the microscopic changes of acute MI become apparent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct

      Explanation:

      The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes

      Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.

      Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.

      Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.

      If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.

      In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, weakness, lethargy, and a recent episode of syncope after running to catch a bus. She has a history of atrial flutter and takes bisoprolol regularly. During the physical examination, you notice a high-pitched, diastolic decrescendo murmur that intensifies during inspiration. She also has moderate peripheral edema. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diuretics, oxygen therapy, bosentan

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Hypertension

      Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is a condition that can cause shortness of breath, weakness, and tiredness. A high-pitched decrescendo murmur may indicate pulmonary regurgitation and PAH. Diuretics can help reduce the pressure on the right ventricle and remove excess fluid. Oxygen therapy can improve exercise tolerance, and bosentan can slow the progression of PAH by inhibiting vasoconstriction. Salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers are appropriate for COPD, but not for PAH. Salbutamol nebulizer and supplemental oxygen are appropriate for acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD, but not for PAH. Aortic valve replacement is not indicated for PAH. Antiplatelets may be helpful for reducing the risk of thrombosis. Increasing bisoprolol may be helpful for atrial flutter, but not for PAH. High-dose calcium-channel blockers may be used for PAH with right heart failure under senior supervision/consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath on minimal exertion is examined by a medical student. While checking the patient's jugular venous pressure (JVP), the student observes that the patient has giant v-waves. What is the most probable cause of a large JVP v-wave (giant v-wave)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Lachmann test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination, she seems generally healthy but slightly fatigued and experiences some breathlessness at rest. Her pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 72 bpm, while her blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg. Upon further examination, no concerning issues are found. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
      What is the probable reason for this woman's development of atrial fibrillation (AF)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lone AF

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Fibrillation: The ABCD Approach

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. Treatment options for AF depend on the classification and can be categorized into rate control, rhythm control, and anticoagulation. The ABCD approach is a useful tool for managing AF.

      A – Anticoagulation: Patients with AF are at an increased risk for thromboembolic disease, and anticoagulation should be considered in high-risk patients where the benefit outweighs the risk of hemorrhage.

      B – Better symptom control: Rate control is aimed at controlling the ventricular response rate to improve symptoms. Rhythm control is aimed at restoring and maintaining sinus rhythm to improve symptoms.

      C – Cardiovascular risk factor management: Management of underlying cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia can help reduce the risk of AF recurrence and complications.

      D – Disease management: Management of underlying conditions associated with AF, such as valvular heart disease and heart failure, can help improve AF outcomes.

      In summary, the ABCD approach to managing AF involves anticoagulation, better symptom control, cardiovascular risk factor management, and disease management. This approach can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome

      Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.

      The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Heart Murmurs

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. Aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve narrows, causes an ejection systolic murmur. On the other hand, left atrial myxomas and right atrial myxomas, which are rare tumors, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur by blocking the valve orifice during diastole. Mitral stenosis, which is often the result of rheumatic fever or a congenital defect, causes mid-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, tricuspid stenosis, which is also commonly caused by rheumatic fever, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur. the causes of heart murmurs is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.

      Which of the following processes could explain this observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions

      The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:

      1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).

      2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.

      3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.

      4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.

      Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed