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  • Question 1 - A study examines the effectiveness of adding a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the effectiveness of adding a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for patients over the age of 60 who have had a stroke. A total of 170 patients are enrolled, with 120 receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and the remaining 50 receiving only aspirin. After 5 years, it is found that 18 patients who received the new drug experienced a subsequent stroke, while only 10 patients who received aspirin alone had a further stroke. What is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 15

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an...

    Correct

    • What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an acute and transient psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A medical colleague contacts you for advice regarding the management of a teenage...

    Correct

    • A medical colleague contacts you for advice regarding the management of a teenage patient with HIV. You have previously looked after this patient due to her having borderline personality disorder and mania. The patient has a long history of self-harm and remains at high risk of suicide. Which of the following antiretrovirals would you suggest your colleague specifically avoid in this case?:

      Your Answer: Efavirenz

      Explanation:

      For exams, it is important to be aware that Efavirenz, an antiretroviral, has been associated with both mania and fatal suicide.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the significance of the cut off of 5 on the MDQ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the significance of the cut off of 5 on the MDQ in diagnosing depression?

      Your Answer: The sensitivity

      Correct Answer: The optimal threshold

      Explanation:

      The threshold score that results in the lowest misclassification rate, achieved by minimizing both false positive and false negative rates, is known as the optimal threshold. Based on the findings of the previous study, the ideal cut off for identifying caseness on the MDQ is five, making it the optimal threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which mood stabilizer is associated with causing visual field defects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mood stabilizer is associated with causing visual field defects?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin and its Impact on Visual Field Defects

      Vigabatrin is a medication that is known to cause visual field constriction in approximately 30% of its users. Although most cases are asymptomatic, the drug affects the peripheral fields and does not impair central visual acuity. Unfortunately, the effects of vigabatrin on the visual field appear to be irreversible of only partially reversible, even after discontinuation of the medication.

      This medication is commonly used to treat epilepsy and other seizure disorders, but its potential impact on vision should be carefully considered before prescribing it to patients. Vigabatrin-induced visual field defects can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life, and healthcare providers should monitor patients closely for any signs of visual impairment while taking this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is accurate about the differential diagnosis of transient global amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the differential diagnosis of transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer: Patients with transient global amnesia are unable to maintain a coherent stream of thought

      Correct Answer: During an attack a patient would be expected to be able to perform serial sevens of spell WORLD backwards

      Explanation:

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) can be differentiated from other conditions such as acute confusional state (ACS), complex partial seizures (CPS), transient epileptic amnesia (TEA), psychogenic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA). ACS patients are unable to maintain a coherent stream of thought, while TGA patients can. Inattention is the key deficit in ACS, whereas TGA patients remain attentive. CPS patients exhibit automatisms and often blankly stare, unlike TGA patients who are alert, attentive, and question repetitively. TEA is a distinctive manifestation of temporal lobe epilepsy causing amnesia alone, and attacks tend to be more numerous than TGA. Psychogenic amnesia usually occurs in the younger population and is associated with memory loss for personal identification, indifference to memory loss, and retrograde rather than anterograde amnesia. TGA can be confused with TIAs, but if motor and sensory symptoms accompany any memory disturbance, then a diagnosis of TIA must be made.

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the recommended duration for a therapeutic trial of methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration for a therapeutic trial of methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the duration of time that cannabis can be detected in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the duration of time that cannabis can be detected in the urine of individuals who use it frequently, following their last consumption?

      Your Answer: 24 hours

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      The duration of cannabis in the system may vary, but it typically lasts for weeks rather than just a few hours of days. However, if cannabis is used only once, it may only be detectable for a period of 6-24 hours.

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms...

    Correct

    • What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms of treatment?

      Your Answer: Minocycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment resistant schizophrenia may benefit from minocycline, a medication typically used for pneumonia and acne.

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia (Resistance)

      Schizophrenia can be a challenging condition to treat, especially when it is resistant to standard therapies. In such cases, clozapine is the preferred treatment option. However, if this medication is not suitable of fails to produce the desired results, there are other options available, although their effectiveness is often limited.

      There is little variation between the alternative treatments, and in practice, olanzapine is typically the first choice, often prescribed at doses higher than those recommended by the manufacturer. If this approach proves ineffective, a second antipsychotic medication may be added to the treatment regimen. Despite these efforts, treatment-resistant schizophrenia remains a significant challenge for clinicians and patients alike.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most effective treatment for PTSD in adolescents? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective treatment for PTSD in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Trauma focussed CBT

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the recommended initial treatment for PTSD is trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      228.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Under the Misuse of Drugs Act, which new psychoactive substance is categorized as...

    Incorrect

    • Under the Misuse of Drugs Act, which new psychoactive substance is categorized as Class C?

      Your Answer: Methoxetamine

      Correct Answer: Piperazines

      Explanation:

      New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be...

    Correct

    • In psychodynamic theory, what are the two defences that are thought to be the basis of phobias?

      Your Answer: Repression and displacement

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What type of amnesia is typically associated with Korsakoff's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of amnesia is typically associated with Korsakoff's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Lacunar amnesia

      Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a significant and disproportionate loss of the ability to form new memories, known as anterograde amnesia, in an otherwise cognitively intact individual (Caulo 2005). Additionally, individuals with this syndrome may experience source amnesia, where they can recall information but cannot remember where of how they learned it, as well as prosopamnesia, which is the inability to recognize of remember faces.

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the most dependable risk factor that has been demonstrated for autism...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most dependable risk factor that has been demonstrated for autism spectrum disorder?

      Your Answer: Maternal smoking

      Correct Answer: Valproate use during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      103.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to altruistic homicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to altruistic homicide?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Offending by the Mentally Disordered

      The prevalence of epilepsy is higher among prisoners than in the general population, but this does not necessarily mean that they are more likely to be serving a custodial sentence for violence. Matricide, the killing of one’s mother, is often associated with schizophrenia, although not always. Othello’s syndrome, a delusional jealousy that usually affects men in their 40s after about 10 years of marriage, can be difficult to treat with antipsychotic medication and may require separation from the spouse. Depressive disorder is more commonly associated with suicide, but in some cases, it can lead to homicide, particularly in the morning and involving family members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?

      Your Answer: 40-50%

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A young refugee from Somalia residing in the US has a daughter who...

    Incorrect

    • A young refugee from Somalia residing in the US has a daughter who was recently identified as having a developmental disability. What are some common traits of individuals from ethnic minority communities who have learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Rarely marry and have children

      Correct Answer: Have strong ethnic identity

      Explanation:

      Individuals with learning disabilities who belong to black and minority ethnic (BME) groups typically have a strong sense of ethnic identity and adhere to cultural practices related to grooming, attire, and personal hygiene. IQ testing can pose challenges due to variations in educational systems, language barriers, and difficulties in utilizing interpreters. Unfortunately, people with learning disabilities from BME communities often encounter more discrimination, with rates up to twice as high as their white counterparts. They frequently originate from extended families that are not dysfunctional and are often cared for by their relatives rather than in institutional settings. Additionally, they commonly marry and have children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the recommended duration of SSRI treatment for preventing relapse in adults...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended duration of SSRI treatment for preventing relapse in adults with body dysmorphic disorder, according to the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the closest estimate of the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the closest estimate of the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?

      Your Answer: 4 per 100 / year

      Correct Answer: 0.2 per 1000 / year

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The ICER is utilized in the following methods of economic evaluation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The ICER is utilized in the following methods of economic evaluation:

      Your Answer: Cost-consequences analysis

      Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

      Explanation:

      The acronym ICER stands for incremental cost-effectiveness ratio.

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia is a type of frontotemporal lobar degeneration

      Correct Answer: Compared to Alzheimer's recent memory is preserved better than remote memory

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any...

    Incorrect

    • If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any improvement after starting olanzapine 5 mg, what would be your next course of action in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Add in fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Increase olanzapine to 10 mg

      Explanation:

      According to BNFC (children), the maximum daily dose of olanzapine for children aged 12-17 is 20 mg. However, a dose of 5 mg is not sufficient for an adequate trial and the dose should be increased to 10 mg before considering switching to a different antipsychotic.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - You are asked to evaluate a 35 year-old man on the medical ward...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 35 year-old man on the medical ward with HIV. He has just recuperated from an episode of mania and has a history of bipolar disorder. You observe that he recently visited the HIV specialist in clinic and had an eGFR of 45. What would be the most suitable medication for the extended management of this man's bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      The individual has bipolar disorder and needs ongoing treatment. The recommended initial medications are Lithium and Valproate. However, due to the person’s eGFR of 45, which indicates stage 3a CKD, Lithium is not a viable option. It is important to note that an eGFR < 90 in a working age adult is a strong indication of renal impairment, although a detailed understanding of CKD is not necessary for the MRCPsych exams. Therefore, Valproate is the preferred treatment in this case. HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative. Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals. Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - What factor is the most reliable indicator of the success of psychodynamic psychotherapy?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is the most reliable indicator of the success of psychodynamic psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Patients age

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic alliance

      Explanation:

      Psychological Therapy – Evidence Based Recommendations

      The Department of Health (DoH) conducted a systematic review of literature on psychological therapies and counselling, which resulted in evidence-based recommendations. The review acknowledged that there are few pure forms of therapy and provided general recommendations.

      The review found that the therapeutic alliance between the therapist and patient is the best predictor of benefit. Therapies with fewer than eight sessions are unlikely to be optimally effective for moderate to severe mental health problems. Symptomatic relief may require 16 of more sessions, and longer therapies may be necessary for lasting change in social and personality functioning.

      The patient’s age, sex, social class, of ethnic group are not significant factors in choosing therapy and should not determine access to therapies. However, interest in self-exploration and the ability to tolerate frustration in relationships may be crucial for success in interpretative therapies, such as psychoanalytic and psychodynamic therapies, compared to supportive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 26 - A 30 year old patient needs medication for opiate withdrawal, during a regular...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old patient needs medication for opiate withdrawal, during a regular physical check-up it is discovered that they have a significantly low blood pressure.

      What should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer: Lofexidine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 28 - A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as: ...

    Incorrect

    • A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukopenia

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of granulocytes, a type of white blood cell that includes neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What is the typical age range of individuals who are diagnosed with Munchausen's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical age range of individuals who are diagnosed with Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following biochemical/haematological changes is associated with clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following biochemical/haematological changes is associated with clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised ALP

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs

      Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.

      One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.

      Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.

      AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.

      TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.

      Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).

      Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (8/11) 73%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/2) 50%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (3/4) 75%
Psychotherapy (2/3) 67%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Forensic Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (0/1) 0%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed