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  • Question 1 - A 67-year old woman with chronic upper extremity lymphoedema is suspected to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old woman with chronic upper extremity lymphoedema is suspected to have thoracic outlet syndrome secondary to thoracic duct obstruction.
      Regarding the thoracic duct, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Drains into the confluence of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins

      Correct Answer: Crosses the midline at the level of T5

      Explanation:

      The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Function

      The thoracic duct is a vital component of the lymphatic system, responsible for draining lymph from the lower body, left thorax, and left head and neck regions. Here are some key facts about the thoracic duct:

      – Crosses the midline at the level of T5: The thoracic duct ascends behind the right crus and to the right of the aorta and oesophagus. It crosses the midline to the left, posterior to the oesophagus, at the level of T5.
      – Drains into the confluence of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins: Correction – the thoracic duct enters the confluence of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins, not the confluence of the right subclavian and internal jugular veins.
      – Lies to the right of the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm: The thoracic duct does not lie anterior to the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm. The thoracic duct ascends to the right of the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm.
      – Has valves: Valves are present along the duct and encourage the propagation of chyle along the duct. These valves may be unicuspid, bicuspid or tricuspid but are most commonly bicuspid.
      – May result in a chylothorax if injured: Injury to the thoracic duct may occur after trauma or during insertion of a central venous catheter on the left-hand side. This can result in a chylothorax (a collection of lymph within the thoracic cavity).

      In summary, the thoracic duct plays a crucial role in the lymphatic system, and understanding its anatomy and function is essential for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm, following her abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ultrasound screening test. She is referred to the vascular surgeon to discuss surgical repair of the aneurysm. Which of the following is correct regarding surgical repair of AAAs?

      Your Answer: EVAR is the preferred method currently used in the event of a ruptured aortic aneurysm

      Correct Answer: EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting EVAR: Clarifying Misconceptions About Endovascular Aneurysm Repair

      Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) is a minimally invasive alternative to open repair for treating abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA). However, there are several misconceptions about EVAR that need to be clarified.

      Contrary to popular belief, EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries. In such cases, open repair is the only option as there is not enough normal aorta to attach the graft, increasing the risk of endoleaks.

      Another myth is that the risk of immediate post-operative complications is higher for EVAR than open repair. In reality, EVAR is associated with shorter recovery times and reduced lengths of stay, making it a preferred method for treating AAA.

      However, the graft attachment is less secure following EVAR, and approximately 1 in 10 patients may need further intervention after the procedure. Additionally, long-term mortality rates do not differ significantly between EVAR and open repair.

      Finally, while both EVAR and open surgical methods can be used to treat a ruptured aortic aneurysm, EVAR is not currently recommended for such cases, except in the context of research.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths and clarify the facts about EVAR to ensure that patients receive the most appropriate treatment for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      1588.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, non-productive cough and two documented episodes of pulmonary thromboemboli over the last year undergoes a heart–lung transplant. Her native heart shows massive right ventricular hypertrophy. The lungs show numerous thromboemboli, and the vasculature shows marked medial smooth muscle hypertrophy and atherosclerotic plaques on the main pulmonary arteries.
      With which of the following diagnoses are these findings most consistent?

      Your Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Conditions: Understanding the Unique Characteristics

      Pulmonary Hypertension:
      Pulmonary hypertension causes medial hypertrophy, arterial fibrosis, and narrowing of the arterial lumen, leading to arterial thrombosis. Primary pulmonary hypertension is characterized by plexogenic pulmonary arteriopathy, which causes hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

      Pneumonia:
      Pneumonia is inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or micro-organisms. However, the presence of massive right ventricular hypertrophy and multiple thromboemboli in the lungs is not consistent with a sole diagnosis of pneumonia.

      Atopic Asthma:
      Atopic asthma is characterized by chronic airway inflammation and bronchial hyper-responsiveness. The findings in atopic asthma include copious mucous plugs, numerous bronchial eosinophils and neutrophils, bronchial basement membrane thickening, and hypertrophy of bronchial smooth muscle and submucosal glands.

      Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):
      ARDS is a rapid onset of respiratory insufficiency due to diffuse alveolar damage. The lung findings include alveoli filled with proteinaceous debris and desquamated alveolar lining cells and alveolar septae lined by hyaline membranes. The heart and pulmonary vasculature show no specific changes in ARDS.

      Goodpasture’s Syndrome:
      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a necrotizing and hemorrhagic pneumonitis accompanied by rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The lungs are filled with fresh hemorrhage and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound scan, as part of the NHS Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) Screening Programme. He has never attended AAA screening before.

      What is the age range of patients who are typically invited to attend AAA screening for the first time?

      Your Answer: 65

      Explanation:

      AAA Screening Guidelines for Men Aged 65 and Over

      Men aged 65 and over are at the highest risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). To detect this condition early, ultrasound scanning is offered to men during the year they turn 65. If the scan shows no signs of AAA, the patient will not be invited for further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to develop in their lifetime.

      However, if the scan shows a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm), the patient will be invited for annual screening. If the AAA is medium-sized (4.5-5.4 cm), the patient will be invited for screening every three months to monitor the aneurysm’s progress. If the AAA is 5.5 cm or more, the patient will be referred to vascular surgeons and advised to consider surgical repair.

      It’s important to note that the risk of developing AAA is much smaller in patients under 65, so screening is not recommended for this age group. Women are also excluded from the screening program. The NHS screening for AAA is carried out at or around 65 years of age to detect and treat the condition early, reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung

      Explanation:

      Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung

      Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.

      Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain, radiating to the intrascapular area, which he describes as a tearing-type pain.
      The patient is usually well, with the only other medical history of note being a diagnosis of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. He is a non-smoker and rarely drinks.
      On examination, the patient appears to be in a significant amount of pain. He is apyrexial, with oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Of note, the patient has a blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg in the right arm and 150/80 mmHg in the left. An early diastolic murmur is also heard in the aortic area.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Aortic Dissection

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a tear in the aortic intima, creating a false lumen between the intima and media. This condition is more likely to occur in men, older individuals, and those with hypertension or connective tissue disorders such as Marfan and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.

      The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes abrupt chest pain that is often described as a shearing or tearing-type pain that may radiate to the back. Other symptoms may include differences in blood pressure between the right and left arm, aortic regurgitation, and signs of malperfusion.

      While a chest X-ray may show widening of the mediastinal shadow, imaging such as computed tomography (CT) or transoesophageal echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves stabilizing the patient’s heart rate and blood pressure to prevent further damage, followed by surgical repair.

      Although myocardial infarction is a differential diagnosis, the classical history of presentation, age, and connective tissue disorder diagnosis make aortic dissection more likely in this scenario. Other differentials, such as ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, acute pancreatitis, and pulmonary embolism, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.

      In conclusion, aortic dissection should be considered in any patient presenting with sudden-onset chest pain, especially those with risk factors for the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed...

    Correct

    • At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?

      Your Answer: T4/5

      Explanation:

      The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch

      The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a true statement about coronary artery grafting for ischaemic heart disease?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about coronary artery grafting for ischaemic heart disease?

      Your Answer: It is unlikely to be successful if >2 major coronary arteries are narrowed

      Correct Answer: It requires a preceding coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Myocardial Revascularization: Debunking Common Misconceptions

      Myocardial revascularization, commonly known as coronary artery surgery, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this procedure that need to be addressed.

      Contrary to popular belief, coronary angiography is a necessary pre-surgery investigation. This is because it helps the surgeon identify the location and severity of the blockages in the coronary arteries.

      Another misconception is that the success of the surgery is limited to patients with less than two major coronary artery blockages. In fact, patients with three or four-vessel disease can benefit greatly from the procedure, as it provides relief from symptoms and reduces morbidity.

      It is also not true that the surgery always requires cardiopulmonary bypass. Depending on the patient’s condition, the surgery may be performed on or off bypass.

      Lastly, while it is true that the surgery does not necessarily prolong life, it does provide significant relief from symptoms and reduces mortality.

      In terms of the grafts used during the surgery, the left internal mammary artery or the saphenous vein are typically used, rather than intercostal arteries.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these misconceptions surrounding myocardial revascularization in order to provide patients with accurate information and improve their understanding of the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      11.2
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with a history of difficulty breathing, hoarse voice, weight loss and occasional night sweats. He also complains of difficulty in swallowing, although this happens very infrequently. He has also noticed that, in the past month, he has become easily tired when performing his daily activities.
      On examination, there is unilateral dullness to percussion at the right lung base, decreased breath sounds on the right side, asymmetrical chest wall expansion and scoliosis are observed. A chest X-ray demonstrates diffuse pleural thickening on the right side and decreased right lung volume. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan and video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT) are performed to obtain the pleural biopsy, and a histopathological diagnosis is made.
      Which of the treatments could achieve the best possible outcome in this patient?

      Your Answer: Combination therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma

      Malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) is an aggressive tumor that arises from the mesothelial cells of the pleural cavity, pericardium, mediastinum, and tunica vaginalis. Treatment options for MPM include non-surgical (chemotherapy, radiotherapy), surgical (macroscopic complete resection or MCR), and combined therapies.

      Combination therapy, which includes systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, has been shown to prolong the relative survival time of MPM patients compared to chemotherapy alone. The choice of MCR procedure depends on the tumor characteristics, surgeon’s expertise, and local institutional protocols. Cisplatin plus pemetrexed is used in systemic chemotherapy for patients with unresectable tumors or those who do not qualify for curative surgery.

      Immunotherapeutic drugs, such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies like pembrolizumab and nivolumab, have shown promising results in a few randomized controlled trials. However, the first line of treatment for unresectable MPM is pemetrexed and platinum-based compounds.

      Radiotherapy poses technical challenges due to the limited ipsilateral side involvement of MPM and the potential for radiation toxicity. Prophylactic doses of radiation are used before systemic chemotherapy and surgery, and three-dimensional techniques like intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) can deliver effective radiation doses while sparing healthy tissues. However, exposure of the contralateral lung to radiation can lead to pneumonitis.

      In conclusion, a combination of therapies, including systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, can prolong the survival time of MPM patients. The choice of treatment depends on the tumor characteristics, patient selection, and institutional protocols. Immunotherapy and radiotherapy are also potential treatment options, but their use depends on the patient’s individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Arrhythmias

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      34.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiothoracic (4/10) 40%
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