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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?

      Your Answer: Wear a collar

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

      Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.

      It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.

      Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      133.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a frequent smoker and inquires about medications that could assist her in quitting smoking. Specifically, she has heard about a medication called Champix (varenicline).
      What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an agent used to aid smokers in quitting?

      Your Answer: Is a partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic receptor

      Correct Answer: Is a nicotine replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      Therapies for Smoking Cessation

      There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor.

      Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

      Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties, is also an effective agent for smoking cessation.

      Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best approach for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      137.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As the duty doctor at a GP practice, you encounter a 26-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As the duty doctor at a GP practice, you encounter a 26-year-old woman who is on the desogestrel progesterone only contraceptive pill (POP). She has been suffering from a vomiting bug and has missed taking her pill for four days. However, she is now feeling better and has taken two of her POPs this afternoon. She plans to continue taking them daily from now on. Her last sexual encounter was seven days ago. What guidance should you provide regarding extra contraception?

      Your Answer: Additional contraception is needed for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Additional contraception is needed for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses a progesterone only pill by over 12 hours or a desogestrel pill by over 36 hours, they should take the missed pill as soon as they remember. Only one pill should be taken, even if multiple pills have been missed. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may result in taking two pills in one day. To ensure effectiveness, additional contraceptive precautions such as condoms or abstaining from sex should be taken for 48 hours after restarting the pill. Emergency contraception may be necessary if unprotected sex occurred after the missed pill and within 48 hours of restarting it. The desogestrel pill has the advantage of a longer window for taking it, reducing the likelihood of missed pills.

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

      If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      98.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort. He has a chronic cough due to smoking and has had an appendicectomy previously. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.

      This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      85.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery by his mother.

      She informs you that he began with what appeared to be a severe catarrhal cold, but now experiences intense paroxysms of coughing, causing him to turn completely red in the face and struggle to catch his breath. Upon examination, he has no fever.

      What feature on history, examination, or investigation, although not conclusive, is consistent with the presence of whooping cough?

      Your Answer: Lack of pyrexia

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      The incubation period for whooping cough, also known as pertussis, typically lasts seven to 10 days but can extend up to 21 days. Patients with this condition often experience a paroxysmal cough with an inspiratory whoop, and lymphocytosis is commonly observed. While extensive consolidation is uncommon, pockets of lower respiratory tract infection may occur due to atelectasis. Notably, a lack of fever is a strong indication of whooping cough.

      Children from travelling families may be at a higher risk of contracting whooping cough if they have missed the standard vaccination schedule. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      181.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 85-year-old man is seen in the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man is seen in the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 144/86 mmHg, consistent with recent readings. His annual blood work shows:

      - Na+ 141 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea 7.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      - HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (5.7%)
      - Total cholesterol 4.3 mmol/l
      - HDL 1.0 mmol/l

      He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, indapamide MR 1.5 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, and simvastatin 20 mg on. As his healthcare provider, which change, if any, should you discuss with the patient?

      Your Answer: No changes to the medication are indicated

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s age of over 80 years, a clinic reading of less than 150/90 mmHg is deemed acceptable, and thus, no modifications to his current antihypertensive medications are necessary.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      169.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear...

    Incorrect

    • A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear that he has bowel cancer, despite being reassured that all investigations have come back negative. He acknowledges that the tests have shown no signs of disease, but he cannot shake the worry that he may have cancer. He has lost his appetite and spends most of his time at home since being laid off from work. He drinks 5-6 glasses of wine daily and has confided in his wife that he is contemplating suicide.

      Which statement accurately describes his situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is likely to have a rapid improvement on chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mental Health Condition of a Redundant Middle-Aged Man

      This man is likely experiencing depression due to being made redundant in mid-life. His fear of bowel cancer is a manifestation of hypochondriasis, which is a somatoform disorder. However, it is distinct from somatisation, although there can be overlap. Additionally, he is exhibiting heavy alcohol consumption as a symptom of his condition.

      Given his expressed suicidal thoughts, tricyclics should be avoided. Instead, citalopram is recommended due to its more benign toxicity profile. While cognitive therapy may be helpful, it is unlikely to lead to complete resolution of his condition given the nature of his symptoms. It is important to understand the complexity of his mental health condition and provide appropriate support and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of her right humerus for a few weeks. The pain radiates into her forearm and is aggravated by resisted dorsiflexion of her wrist. What is the most cost-effective management option for her in the long-term (12 months)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wait-and-see approach with analgesia

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: A Comparison of Effectiveness and Costs

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow. In a randomized controlled trial, three treatment options were compared: physiotherapy, corticosteroid injections, and a wait-and-see policy with analgesia.

      At six weeks, corticosteroid injections showed the most significant improvement in symptoms, but the benefits were short-lived. At 52 weeks, physiotherapy was found to be superior to corticosteroid injections for all outcome measures. The wait-and-see policy also showed beneficial long-term effects compared with corticosteroid injections.

      While physiotherapy may be the most effective treatment option, it is also the most expensive. A wait-and-see policy with adequate advice and provision of analgesia may be enough for most patients, as nearly 90% of patients will recover within one year.

      Acupuncture and surgical release of the extensor origin are not recommended due to limited evidence. Clinicians should discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each option with their patients to determine the best course of treatment.

      Comparing Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Which is Most Effective and Cost-Efficient?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
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  • Question 9 - You have a telephone consultation with an 18-year-old male who has a 6-month...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with an 18-year-old male who has a 6-month history of acne. He has never consulted about this before. He started a university course 3 months ago and thinks that the acne has worsened since then. His older brother had a similar problem and received specialist treatment from a dermatologist.

      You review the photo he has sent in and note open and closed comedones on his face with sparse papules. There are no pustules or scarring and no other body areas are affected.

      What is the best management option for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzoyl peroxide gel

      Explanation:

      To prevent bacterial resistance, topical antibiotic lotion should be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide. It may be considered as a treatment option if topical benzoyl peroxide has not been effective. However, it is important to avoid overcleaning the skin as this can cause dryness and irritation. It is also important to note that acne is not caused by poor hygiene. When treating moderate acne, an oral antibiotic should be co-prescribed with benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid if topical treatment alone is not effective. Lymecycline and benzoyl peroxide gel should not be used as a first-line treatment, but rather as a second-line option in case of treatment failure with benzoyl peroxide alone.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 10 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago. The result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but her cervical cytology was normal.

      She underwent repeat testing after 12 months and again tested positive for hrHPV with normal cytology. Her next screening was scheduled for another 12 months.

      Recently, Samantha underwent her scheduled screening. The results indicate that she is still hrHPV positive and her cytology is normal.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines on cervical cancer screening, if an individual’s second repeat smear at 24 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should be referred for colposcopy. Prior to this, if an individual is positive for hrHPV but receives a negative cytology report, they should have the HPV test repeated at 12 months. If the HPV test is negative at 12 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive and cytology negative at 12 months, they should have a repeat HPV test in a further 12 months. If they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can safely return to routine recall.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
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