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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of hearing and ringing in her right ear for the past 4 weeks. Upon examination, her ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction is better than bone conduction on both sides, but Weber's test reveals that the sound is heard best in her left ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      98.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
      What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?

      Your Answer: Presence of abnormality during cardiovascular examination

      Correct Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia

      Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      109.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter a thirty-year-old patient complaining of right upper abdominal pain and anorexia. Upon examination, you find an overweight Caucasian female with a soft abdomen that is tender in the right upper quadrant. Her observations indicate fever and mild tachycardia. Blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin level (87 umol/L). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain is known as Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which indicates an infection of the bile ducts. This patient is likely suffering from ascending cholangitis. Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, can also cause right upper quadrant pain and may precede ascending cholangitis. While gallstones are a common cause of cholangitis, they can be asymptomatic and are not a diagnosis on their own. Pregnancy is not a likely cause of right upper quadrant pain. Gilbert’s syndrome typically causes mild jaundice only during times of stress and is usually asymptomatic.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes in for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been symptom-free since. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer: Switch to long-term low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming increasingly common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they receive antiplatelet therapy as well. However, if the patient has an indication for an anticoagulant, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      For patients who develop venous thromboembolism while on antiplatelets, they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      332.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is prescribed oral alendronate after a hip fracture. Can you provide instructions on how to take the tablet?

      Your Answer: Take at least 30 minutes after a main meal + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Correct Answer: Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast with plenty of water + sit-upright for 30 minutes following

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10....

    Incorrect

    • A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Encourage the mother to sit with the baby in sunlight

      Correct Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old female presents to rheumatology out-patients referred by her GP due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female presents to rheumatology out-patients referred by her GP due to a history of arthritis in both hands. What x-ray finding would indicate a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other potential causes?

      Your Answer: Subchondral sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Early x-ray signs of rheumatoid arthritis include juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia, which distinguishes it from osteoarthritis. Both RA and osteoarthritis may exhibit joint space reduction.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service with headache, neck stiffness and a petechial rash. There is a history of infection with Neisseria meningitidis four and ten years earlier. He is immediately referred to the local general hospital.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 310 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Lumbar puncture: neutrophils +++
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C2 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Membrane attack complex (MAC) formation deficiency

      Explanation:

      Overview of Complement Deficiencies and Associated Infections

      Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) Formation Deficiency
      MAC is the final stage of complement activation that leads to the formation of a hole in the bacterial cell membrane, causing cell lysis. Patients with MAC formation deficiency are prone to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly with Neisseria meningitidis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

      C1 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C2 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C4 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Deficiency
      IgA deficiency results in autoimmune diseases, respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, and gastrointestinal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      67.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.9
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L
      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      103.4
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  • Question 13 - A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to a pulmonary embolism. During treatment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to a pulmonary embolism. During treatment, she has experienced pain, numbness, and tingling in her left anterior thigh that extends to her medial leg. Additionally, she has weakness in knee extension and hip flexion, and her left knee jerk is absent. What is the most probable location of the lesion? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Left sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Left femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The left femoral nerve originates from L2-L4 in the lumbar plexus and damage to it can cause weakness in the quadriceps and iliopsoas muscles, resulting in difficulty with hip flexion and knee extension. There may also be numbness in the medial thigh and antero-medial calf, and decreased or absent patellar reflex. However, sensation to the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is preserved as it is innervated by a different nerve. The patient’s symptoms are likely due to a retroperitoneal hematoma caused by warfarin use. The left obturator nerve, which also originates from L2-L4, would cause different symptoms such as groin or medial thigh pain and weakness in the adductor muscles. The left common peroneal nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, would result in foot drop and sensory loss over the anterior calf and dorsum of the foot, but not above the knee. The left sciatic nerve supplies the hamstrings and all the muscles of the leg and foot, and damage to it would cause loss of power below the knee, loss of ankle jerk, and loss of lateral sensation below the knee. Finally, the left superior gluteal nerve supplies specific muscles in the buttocks and would result in a positive Trendelenburg’s sign, but no sensory loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and loose stools that have been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stool but has lost a few kilograms in weight. Recently, she has noticed some itchy, vesicular rashes on her knees that have been persistent. Routine blood tests were ordered and all came back normal except for one positive result. What is the name of the dermatological condition she is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      67.1
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  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite being generally healthy and playing tennis regularly, he has been limited by the pain. Upon examination, his shoulders appear symmetrical with no skin changes, but he experiences mild tenderness over the right acromion. He can fully abduct his arm, but experiences pain approximately halfway through the motion, with the start and end of abduction being pain-free. There are no other symptoms or abnormalities in his upper limbs. What is the probable underlying pathology for this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Acromioclavicular inflammatory arthritis

      Correct Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction. This is likely the cause of the patient’s shoulder pain, which is accompanied by tenderness at the acromion and pain around the midpoint of abduction (typically between 60 to 120 degrees). These symptoms are not indicative of inflammatory arthritis affecting the acromioclavicular joint, which is rare. Osteoarthritis affecting the ACJ may cause tenderness and swelling, but not acromial tenderness or a painful arc in abduction. Cervical radiculopathy would cause neuropathic pain in the distribution of a cervical root, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies typically cause acute joint inflammation and effusion, which is not present in this case. A supraspinatus tear is a possible differential diagnosis, but the pain would be limited to the initial 60 degrees of abduction rather than the midpoint, indicating impingement as the more likely cause. Depending on the extent of the tear, abduction may also be limited due to difficulty initiating the movement.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.3
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  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect osteoarthritis as the diagnosis? If so, what signs or symptoms would warrant additional testing for a different diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A body mass index of 33 kg/m²

      Correct Answer: Morning stiffness lasting 4 hours

      Explanation:

      If morning stiffness persists for more than 2 hours, it could be a sign of inflammatory arthritis and should be investigated further.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.

      If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.

      Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.4
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  • Question 17 - A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a cough and sore throat last week and has been experiencing a spinning sensation since then. The vertigo can last for hours and causes significant nausea, making it difficult for him to leave the house and go to work as a teacher. During an ENT examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus and intact tympanic membranes with no hearing loss. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Short course of oral prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      In cases of vestibular neuronitis, prochlorperazine can be effective during the acute phase, but it should not be continued for an extended period as it can hinder the central compensatory mechanisms that aid in recovery. This patient’s symptoms, including recurrent vertigo attacks, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus, are consistent with vestibular neuronitis, likely triggered by a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. A brief course of oral prochlorperazine is recommended, with the option of using buccal or intramuscular administration for more severe cases. However, it is important to discontinue prochlorperazine after a few days to avoid impeding the recovery process. Long-term use of prochlorperazine would not be appropriate in this situation.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his axillary skin. He reports feeling otherwise healthy and denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, you observe thickened and darkened skin in the axillary creases. The patient's BMI is 38 kg/m² and his blood pressure is within normal limits. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      A thickened brown velvety patch of skin, often accompanied by skin tags, is a common sign of Acanthosis nigricans (AN). This condition is typically found in the axilla, groin, and back of the neck. However, AN is not a standalone condition, but rather a cutaneous sign of underlying disease. The most common type of AN is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Other underlying conditions linked to AN include Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain medications such as nicotinic acid, insulin, and systemic corticosteroids. In rare cases, AN may indicate an underlying malignancy, particularly stomach cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this possibility when making a diagnosis.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her clinical team to discuss her ongoing care. The team notes that she has been experiencing weight loss and increased fatigue. The patient reports struggling with chewing and swallowing food, even when it has been mashed or pureed. What is the most suitable long-term management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate total parenteral nutrition

      Correct Answer: Insert a percutaneous gastrostomy tube

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate way to provide nutritional support for patients with motor neuron disease is through the insertion of a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube. If a patient is struggling to feed themselves, they may initially benefit from smaller, more liquid-like meals, but if this is not sufficient, a PEG tube is a definitive long-term management option. Continuing with their current diet regimen is not recommended as it may lead to poor nutrition and a risk of aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is only used as a last resort when there is impaired nutrient absorption. Inserting a nasogastric tube is not a suitable option as it must be removed after a few weeks to avoid adverse effects. A percutaneous jejunostomy tube is also not recommended as it is less commonly used and harder to maintain than a PEG tube.

      Managing Motor Neuron Disease

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The cause of the disease is unknown.

      One medication used in the management of motor neuron disease is riluzole, which works by preventing the stimulation of glutamate receptors. It is mainly used in cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by approximately three months.

      Respiratory care is also an important aspect of managing motor neuron disease. Non-invasive ventilation, usually in the form of BIPAP, is used at night and has been associated with a survival benefit of around seven months.

      Nutrition support is also crucial in managing motor neuron disease. The preferred method is percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG), which has been linked to prolonged survival.

      Unfortunately, the prognosis for motor neuron disease is poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Topical flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and palpable lymph nodes in the left supraclavicular fossa.
      What is the most suitable location to investigate for a primary tumor in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Correct Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Metastasis and Spread of Common Cancers

      Gastric carcinoma, the fifth most common cancer worldwide, often presents with advanced disease and can affect various parts of the stomach. Troisier’s sign, an enlarged left supraclavicular node, is a telltale sign of gastric carcinoma, but cancers from other gastrointestinal and urogenital sites can also present with this symptom.

      Endometrial cancer, or cancer of the corpus uteri, typically spreads to pelvic and para-aortic nodes, as well as distant organs like the lungs, liver, brain, and bones. Epigastric pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and ascites may indicate poor prognosis.

      Lung cancers tend to spread to deep lymph nodes in the mediastinum and thorax, as well as the other lung, pleura, and distant organs.

      Renal carcinoma first spreads to local lymph nodes before invading the aorta and vena cava. It can also spread to more distant lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lungs.

      Prostate cancer can spread to local and regional lymph nodes, but it is also known to spread to the bones, causing severe pain, especially in the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Admit for IV (intravenous) antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with his roommate for the past few weeks. What is the most prevalent symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache. Severe toxicity can be identified by cherry red skin, which is typically observed after death.

      Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.

      To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.

      In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. He reports taking 28 tablets, each containing 500 milligrams of paracetamol, in an attempt to end his life. However, he now expresses regret and desires full medical treatment.

      As the healthcare provider, you determine that a paracetamol level is necessary to guide treatment with acetylcysteine. What is the earliest time frame after ingestion of the tablets that a paracetamol level can be utilized for treatment guidance?

      Your Answer: 4 hours after ingestion

      Explanation:

      A plasma paracetamol level taken within four hours of ingestion cannot be accurately interpreted. This is because the drug is still being absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract during this time, which can result in an underestimation of the total ingestion of paracetamol. To obtain an accurate reading, it is important to wait until at least four hours have passed before taking a blood sample and plotting it on the treatment nomogram.

      For patients who present within one hour of ingestion, activated charcoal may be administered to reduce absorption of the drug. However, a paracetamol level taken at this stage may not provide much useful information.

      In cases where the ingestion time is unknown or the overdose was taken over a period of more than an hour, acetylcysteine treatment may be initiated regardless of the paracetamol level.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening lower abdominal pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening lower abdominal pain over the past 48 hours. The pain is located in the suprapubic area and slightly to the left. She experienced some vaginal bleeding this morning, which she describes as light. The patient also reports shoulder pain that started after playing tennis. Her last menstrual period was seven weeks ago and was normal. She has a history of Chlamydia infection and admits to not practicing safe sex. On examination, she is tender in the left iliac fossa. Her blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg, and her pulse is 100/min. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy presents with amenorrhoea, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and shoulder tip pain indicating peritoneal bleeding.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months

      Explanation:

      For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old patient presents to you with a query about discontinuing her alendronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient presents to you with a query about discontinuing her alendronic acid medication. She has been taking it for six years since she suffered a distal radial fracture after tripping over an uneven kerb. She has not experienced any other fractures before or after this incident. Her DEXA scan six years ago revealed a T-score of -2.4. The patient has no significant medical history and has not had any recent falls. She is a non-smoker. What would be the appropriate course of action to discuss with the patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the bisphosphonate for one year and then re-introduce it at the same dose

      Correct Answer: Repeat DEXA scan and FRAX score now and stop the bisphosphonate if low risk, T score is now >-2.5, and review in two years

      Explanation:

      The topic of bisphosphonate holidays has gained attention due to recent evidence from the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) in January 2016. The guidance recommends that after a five-year period of taking oral bisphosphonates (or three years for IV zoledronate), patients should undergo a re-assessment of their treatment. This includes an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan to determine if ongoing treatment is necessary.

      Patients are divided into high and low-risk groups based on certain criteria. To be considered high-risk, patients must meet one of the following criteria: age over 75, receiving glucocorticoid therapy, previous hip/vertebral fractures, further fractures while on treatment, high-risk FRAX score, or a T score of less than -2.5 after treatment. If any of these criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely or until the criteria no longer apply.

      For patients in the low-risk group, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years or if a further fracture occurs. In the case of a patient without high-risk factors, a recent DEXA scan should be conducted to determine if a two-year break from treatment is appropriate, provided their T score is greater than -2.5.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge that is causing itchiness and hindering her ability to focus on her studies. She reveals that she has previously attempted to treat these symptoms with over-the-counter remedies, as she has experienced two similar episodes within the past five months. The patient is sexually active and uses both condoms and oral contraceptives. During her visit, a urine dip test is conducted, which yields negative results for pregnancy, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What would be the most effective course of action for managing this patient's recurring symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole. Over the counter antifungal treatments, such as clotrimazole cream, are typically effective for one-off episodes of thrush. However, in cases of recurrent symptoms, a more comprehensive treatment plan may be necessary. It is important to ensure that the patient is not taking SSRI medications or has hypersensitivity to ‘azole’ antifungal medications before prescribing fluconazole. It should be noted that IM ceftriaxone and oral ciprofloxacin are used to manage Neisseria gonorrhoea, not thrush, and oral metronidazole is used to manage bacterial vaginosis, not thrush.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oral oxytetracycline

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.7
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  • Question 30 - A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (3/6) 50%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (2/5) 40%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Passmed