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Question 1
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents with behaviour issues. Her father is concerned that she may have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Which of the following would most support this diagnosis?Your Answer: Challenging behaviour present at home and school
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention. These symptoms should be present in multiple settings, such as both at home and in school, and in multiple domains of social or personal functioning. ADHD is typically diagnosed in 3-7% of school-age children.
It is important to note that a carefree attitude to danger alone is not enough to make a diagnosis of ADHD. Evidence of impairment in other domains is necessary. Additionally, while environmental factors may play a role, genetics are also believed to be involved in the development of ADHD. Therefore, it is possible for a sibling or other family member to also have the disorder.
According to NICE guidelines, symptoms must be present for at least six months for a diagnosis of ADHD. Poor academic achievement alone is not enough to indicate ADHD, as it is commonly seen in children without the disorder. It is important to consider a range of symptoms and domains of functioning when evaluating for ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), or ‘glue ear’. Insertion of ventilation tubes (grommets) has been recommended. His parents are unsure whether to proceed and ask the GP about the benefits.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), which of the following is most improved due to this procedure?
Your Answer: Short-term hearing (< 6 months)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The Short and Long-Term Effects of Grommet Insertion for Otitis Media with Effusion
Grommet insertion is a common surgical procedure for children with otitis media with effusion (OME). However, it is important to understand the short and long-term effects of this procedure.
Short-term hearing improvement is the only proven benefit of grommet insertion, with evidence showing improvement for up to 12 months after surgery. However, the effect diminishes after six months and grommets only remain effective while they are in place, which is usually an average of ten months.
In terms of behaviour and cognitive development, there is no evidence-based association between grommet insertion and improvement. Adaptations at school, such as seating arrangements, can help with educational attainment for children with OME.
Similarly, there is little evidence that grommet insertion improves speech and language development in the long term. Instead, parents and caregivers should focus on supporting speech and language development through activities such as daily reading.
Overall, while grommet insertion can provide short-term hearing improvement, it is important to consider other factors when making decisions about treatment for OME.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary.
Returning the patient to normal recall is not appropriate as further investigation is required. Repeating the sample in 3 months is also not necessary as the patient has high-risk HPV and needs specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 12 months could be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings after colposcopy.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using a sunbed could alleviate it. Identify the sole condition that can be positively impacted by exposure to sunlight.
Your Answer: Herpes simplex (labialis)
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Dangers and Benefits of UV Light Therapy for Skin Conditions
UV light therapy, including UVB and PUVA, can effectively treat psoriasis, atopic eczema, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and even polymorphic light eruption. However, sunlight can worsen conditions like lupus erythematosus and rosacea, and lead to skin ageing and cancer over time. Tanning, whether from the sun or a sunbed, should only be used under medical supervision for phototherapy. It’s important to weigh the potential benefits and risks of UV light therapy for skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with learning difficulty requests contraception. She works part-time in a supermarket as part of a supported employment programme and has started a relationship with a co-worker who is also on the programme. He is her first boyfriend. She reports they have been together for four months and that he has met her family who she says like him. She has already had intercourse with him using barrier contraception.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Offer the patient a choice of all methods
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Patients with Learning Disabilities
When it comes to contraception, individuals with learning disabilities should be offered the same range of options as anyone else. It is important to provide information that is appropriate for their ability to understand and process it. The patient’s choice should be respected, and they should not be denied autonomy in their medical care due to their disability.
Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)
The COCP may be a suitable option for patients with learning disabilities, but an individual assessment should be made regarding their ability to take it correctly. If the patient chooses the COCP, they may be capable of complying with administration, alone or with assistance if needed.Depot Progestogen
Depot progestogen has been a common choice for people with learning disabilities. If the patient wishes to use it and has no contraindications, it may be an appropriate option. However, the patient must be allowed to make the choice themselves.Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)
The IUCD is an effective and convenient form of contraception. If the patient has been sexually active and is willing to tolerate insertion, it may be a suitable option. Again, the patient should be given the choice to decide if it is right for them.Sterilisation
Sterilisation is a controversial option for patients with learning disabilities and should only be considered if specifically requested by the patient. Given the availability of reversible alternatives and the patient’s young age, it would require detailed discussion.Contraceptive Options for Patients with Learning Disabilities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 6
Correct
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A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?
Your Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Refer routinely for endoscopy
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of feeling tired and thirsty for the past week. He also reports experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain that started earlier today. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 99/71 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, temperature is 36.4ºC, and oxygen saturation is 98%. His chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft with mild generalised tenderness. What investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Blood glucose (BM)
Explanation:When a patient experiences abdominal pain, it could be an indication of diabetic ketoacidosis. If a young patient is showing signs of lethargy, thirst, vomiting, and abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of DKA. It is crucial to check the patient’s blood glucose level immediately to confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old man is admitted with a myocardial infarction. His serum cholesterol concentration is 9.6 mmol/l. An underlying diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia is suspected.
Which of the following signs on examination of this patient would be most suggestive of this underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Tendon xanthomas
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein. Symptoms include corneal arcus, periorbital xanthelasmas, and tendon xanthomas, which are specific to this condition. Tendon xanthomas, particularly in the Achilles tendons and extensor tendons on the back of the hand, are a diagnostic criterion for familial hypercholesterolaemia. Corneal arcus, a white, grey, or blue opaque ring in the corneal margin caused by a lipid deposit, is also a diagnostic criterion, but only if present before the age of 45. Eruptive xanthomas, palmar xanthomas, and xanthelasma are also associated with hypercholesterolaemia, but may be seen in individuals with normal serum lipid levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?
Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?
Your Answer: Prostate-specific antigen
Explanation:The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.
Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.
PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.
Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?
Your Answer: Acute urticaria
Explanation:Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms
Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.
In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.
Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.
Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing menorrhagia and severe bruising. She has also observed swelling of her gums and a gradual decline in energy and strength. Which medication is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Antiepileptic Drugs and their Side Effects: A Comparison
Craniotomies can increase the risk of seizures post-operatively, leading to prophylactic treatment with antiepileptics such as phenytoin. However, this drug is associated with gum hypertrophy and blood disorders. Carbamazepine may cause fatigue, bruising, and menorrhagia, but not gum hypertrophy. Sodium valproate can cause most symptoms but is not commonly associated with gum hypertrophy and should be avoided in women of reproductive age. Topiramate can cause all symptoms except gum hypertrophy, while oxcarbazepine rarely causes thrombocytopenia and doesn’t commonly lead to gum hypertrophy. Overall, phenytoin is the most likely drug causing the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom is brought to the General Practitioner. Examination reveals developmental delay, congenital heart disease, growth retardation and dysmorphic facial features. Williams’ syndrome is suspected.
Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in this child?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Understanding Williams Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder with Various Physical and Mental Impacts
Williams syndrome, also known as infantile hypercalcaemia, is a rare genetic disorder that can affect brain development to varying degrees. While it is an autosomal dominant disease, the majority of cases occur at random. Physical symptoms of Williams syndrome include lack of coordination, slight muscle weakness, heart defects, occasional kidney damage, and corneal opacities. Attention deficit disorder is also commonly present. Additionally, subclinical hypothyroidism is frequently present but usually remains stable.
One of the most significant concerns for individuals with Williams syndrome is the high prevalence of impaired glucose tolerance and diabetes mellitus in young adults. Treatment for hypercalcaemia may include diet modification, oral corticosteroids, and/or intravenous pamidronate. It is important to note that children with Williams syndrome should not be given multivitamins because paediatric preparations all contain vitamin D.
Long-term morbidity for individuals with Williams syndrome is mainly due to mental handicap and arteriopathy. However, hypertension, kyphoscoliosis, and obesity are also common. It is crucial for individuals with Williams syndrome to receive proper medical care and support to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of a burning sensation in her left leg. She mentions that the leg is very sensitive to touch as well.
After diagnosis, the GP prescribes amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. However, after 12 weeks, the patient returns and reports no improvement despite taking the medication as directed.
The GP decides to discontinue the use of amitriptyline. What alternative treatment options should the GP suggest next?Your Answer: Oral duloxetine
Explanation:The initial drugs recommended for treating neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these medications are ineffective, the next step is to try one of the remaining three drugs. Therefore, the correct option is duloxetine.
According to NICE guidelines, lidocaine patches are not a recommended treatment for neuropathic pain.
Topical capsaicin is only suitable for localized neuropathic pain. Using topical capsaicin for neuropathic pain affecting the entire leg would not be appropriate.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including oral naproxen, are not recommended for treating neuropathic pain.
Understanding Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.
Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, Liam exhibits 5/5 power in all muscle groups, but movement is painful when he abducts and elevates his shoulders. There is no apparent joint swelling, and there are no other neurological issues. Despite the pain, Liam has a good range of motion. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The usual progression of rheumatoid arthritis involves experiencing pain first, followed by stiffness. However, in this particular case, the patient is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously. The condition commonly causes swelling, stiffness, and pain in the small joints of the hands and feet.
Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Correct
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You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is the recommended vaccination protocol for this population?
Your Answer: Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of feeling constantly fatigued and experiencing occasional joint pains. She has undergone some initial blood tests, including a complete blood count, liver and kidney function tests, thyroid function, and bone profile, all of which have come back normal. Despite this, she is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Upon further questioning, she denies any history of rash, mouth sores, or hair loss, and her physical examination is unremarkable. However, she remains anxious and is requesting another blood test to rule out the possibility of lupus.
What is the most appropriate blood test to perform in this scenario?Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies
Explanation:The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic diseases in adults, but it is not very accurate without typical clinical features. While tests like anti-dsDNA are more specific for SLE, they are less sensitive, meaning a negative result doesn’t necessarily rule out the condition.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia. During the consultation, it is observed that he has bilateral ptosis. He has no contact with his family and has never met his father, but he is aware that his sister has a muscle condition and lost a child in infancy. The patient reports having difficulty releasing someone's hand after shaking it at work.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Differences
Myotonic Dystrophy: An Overview
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and nervous system. It is characterized by myopathic facies, myotonia in the hands, and cardiac conduction defects. The congenital form of the disease can be fatal.Spinal Muscular Atrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Spinal muscular atrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and atrophy. It primarily affects the spinal nerves and doesn’t typically present with ptosis.Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscular dystrophy. Ptosis is not a typical sign.Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes weakness in the orbicularis oculi muscles, leading to difficulty in keeping eyelids closed. Ptosis is not typically seen at presentation.Becker Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents with progressive proximal dystrophy. It usually presents at a younger age than myotonic dystrophy, with patients becoming progressively weaker between the ages of 20 and 60 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 21
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A 14-year-old girl has measles.
Select from the list the single most likely complication.Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia
Explanation:Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection
Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.
Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.
Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and weight loss, for which no organic cause can be found.
Which of the following features would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (AN)?Your Answer: Delusion of being overweight
Correct Answer: Hypotrichosis
Explanation:Features of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder that is characterized by a phobic avoidance of normal weight, relentless dieting, self-induced vomiting, laxative use, excessive exercise, amenorrhoea, lanugo hair, hypotension, denial, concealment, over-perception of body image, and enmeshed families. Individuals with AN have an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, which leads to severe weight loss and malnutrition. They often engage in extreme behaviors to control their weight, such as restricting their food intake, purging, and over-exercising. AN can have serious physical and psychological consequences, including organ damage, osteoporosis, depression, and anxiety. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with AN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who was discharged from hospital 4 weeks ago following a hip replacement surgery. Her GP last saw her during a home visit 3 days after discharge. She had been regularly seen by the district nurse since then. Unfortunately, she had declined significantly since her hospital admission and was found dead by her daughter this morning.
What is the appropriate course of action for the GP regarding Sophie's death certificate?Your Answer: Sign the death certificate, putting old age in section 1a
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not examined the deceased within 28 days prior to their death, the case must be referred to the coroner. This time frame was extended from 14 days due to the COVID pandemic.
While it may be appropriate to list myocardial infarction as the cause of death in section 1a, the GP is not authorized to issue the death certificate in such cases. It is generally not recommended to cite old age as the cause of death.
Only a medical practitioner who is registered can complete a death certificate.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old man complains of dizziness and loss of hearing on the right side during his visit to the GP. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer: Absent corneal reflex
Explanation:Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
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A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 9 ml
Explanation:Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage
When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.
Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
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Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?
Your Answer: Statins
Explanation:Lipid Management in Primary Care
Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.
Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
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A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She mentions experiencing blurred vision and that her headaches intensify when she bends forward. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) as her only medication. During fundi examination, papilloedema is suspected. Her prolactin level is mildly elevated at 800 mU/l (normal range: < 400 mU/l). She is also obese. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
IIH is a condition that primarily affects obese young women. It is characterized by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may worsen the condition. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated cerebrospinal fluid pressure, but there is no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. If left untreated, IIH can lead to irreversible optic neuropathy. Treatment options include serial lumbar punctures, prednisolone, thiazide diuretics, acetazolamide, weight loss, and surgical decompression or shunting.Microprolactinoma and Macroprolactinoma
Microprolactinoma is a pituitary tumor that is less than 10 mm in size. It can cause amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and galactorrhea, accompanied by high prolactin levels. Macroprolactinoma, on the other hand, is larger than 10 mm and can cause headaches and visual field defects. Persistent high prolactin levels may indicate a pathological cause and require further investigation.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure. It mainly affects the elderly and is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia. It may be caused by meningitis, head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or a tumor. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia.Superior Sagittal Sinus Thrombosis
Thrombosis of the cerebral veins or venous sinuses can cause cerebral infarction or hemorrhage. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can cause headache, seizures, paralysis, visual disturbances, and neck stiffness. Symptoms are related to the area of thrombosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
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A 25-year-old man was referred for investigation of iron deficiency anaemia.
His mother died aged 28 years from colonic carcinoma complicating Peutz-Jegher syndrome.
Which is the most likely mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jegher syndrome?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Increased Cancer Risk
Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and numerous hamartomas in the bowel. While it was previously believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of cancer, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome are at an increased risk for developing various types of cancer, including gastrointestinal, breast, and ovarian cancer. Therefore, it is important for individuals with this syndrome to undergo regular cancer screenings and surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne muscular dystrophy to her future children. Her brother has the condition and genetic testing has confirmed that she is a carrier. She is aware that the disorder is inherited as an X linked recessive trait. Her partner, who is 31 years old, has no significant medical or family history of genetic disease. What guidance do you provide her?
Your Answer: Sons of a female carrier have a 25% chance of being affected
Correct Answer: Daughters of a female carrier have a 50% chance of being a carrier
Explanation:Understanding X Linked Recessive Inheritance
X linked recessive conditions are caused by a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. This type of inheritance affects males more than females because men only have one gene copy. Females, on the other hand, are typically unaffected but carry the condition.
One of the key characteristics of X linked recessive inheritance is that there is no male-to-male disease transmission. This means that a father must pass his Y chromosome to all his sons, which makes it impossible for a father to pass on the condition to his son. However, daughters of an affected male must all be carriers because the father must pass his X chromosome to all daughters.
If a female is a carrier of an X linked recessive condition, her male offspring have a 50% chance of being affected. Female offspring of a female carrier also have a 50% chance of being carriers. Understanding X linked recessive inheritance is important for genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 30
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss becoming pregnant. She is aware that the chance of having a child with Down syndrome increases with maternal age. She wishes to be aware of all the facts regarding learning disabilities more generally. She asks about mental and physical health issues, employment statistics and social issues.
Which of the following is a person with learning disabilities most likely to also experience?Your Answer: Social inequality
Explanation:Understanding Social Inequality and Health Disparities Among Individuals with Learning Disabilities in the UK
Individuals with learning disabilities in the United Kingdom face significant social inequality and health disparities. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, approximately 60% of young people with learning disabilities live in poverty, and they are more likely to experience bullying, abuse, passive smoking, and lack of social support. Additionally, 30-40% of individuals with learning disabilities experience challenging behaviors while in a hospital setting, and only 6% of adults with learning disabilities are employed. Furthermore, around 50% of individuals with learning disabilities have physical health problems, and 24-40% experience mental health problems. It is crucial to address these disparities and provide support and resources to improve the quality of life for individuals with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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