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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks into her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Patient
Haemoglobin
101 g/l (115–155 g/l )
Haematocrit
0.38 (0.35–0.55)
Red blood cell count
5.24 × 1012/l (3.8–5.8 × 1012/l)
Mean corpuscular volume
63 fl (76–98 fl)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin
20 pg (27.0–32.0 pg)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
32 g/dl (32.0–36.0 g/dl)
White cell count
6.9 × 109/l (4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets
241 × 109/l (150–400 × 109/l)
Further testing reveals a fetal haemoglobin (HbF) of 0.6% (normal range < 1%) and haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) of 4.5% (normal range 1.5–3.5%).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Iron deficiency
Correct Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding Beta Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differences from Other Blood Disorders
Beta thalassaemia trait is a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of beta globin, a protein that makes up part of the haemoglobin molecule. This condition is autosomal-recessive, meaning that it only occurs when both parents carry the gene mutation. Individuals with beta thalassaemia trait have a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which can be detected through blood tests that show a normal red cell count and mean cell haemoglobin concentration, but an elevated level of haemoglobin A2.
It is important to distinguish beta thalassaemia trait from other blood disorders, such as acute folic acid deficiency, alpha thalassaemia trait, iron deficiency, and sickle cell anaemia. Acute folic acid deficiency typically occurs after tissue damage or renal failure, while alpha thalassaemia trait is caused by a deficiency in alpha globin production. Iron deficiency can coexist with beta thalassaemia trait, but cannot be diagnosed based on microcytosis alone. Sickle cell anaemia is a separate condition that involves homozygosity for the sickle cell haemoglobin mutation.
Diagnosis of beta thalassaemia trait requires measuring the alpha-beta chain synthesis ratio or performing genetic tests. While beta thalassaemia trait is usually asymptomatic and doesn’t cause problems during pregnancy, it is important to screen both partners to assess the risk of having a child with beta thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She was feeling a bit sick yesterday with a fever, tiredness, and a sore throat. Today, her father is concerned as he has noticed 'blisters' in and around her mouth and she is refusing to eat or drink. During the examination, the child appears unhappy but not seriously ill, her temperature is 38.2ºC and she has a combination of shallow ulcers and red papules scattered over her hard palate, tongue, and lips. Upon further examination, a few red maculopapular lesions are also visible along the sides of her fingers, around her left heel, and over her buttocks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease
Explanation:Hand foot and mouth disease is the correct answer. The patient’s history reveals a mild illness with symptoms such as systemic upset, sore throat, and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and lesions on the hands and feet. It is worth noting that the lesions may also be present in the groin or buttocks area. The rash is characterized by scattered erythematous macules and papules, usually with a central greyish vesicle measuring around 25 mm.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
Select the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Commence weekly subcutaneous peginterferon and daily oral ribavirin
Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks
Explanation:Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.
In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing. During the examination, the infant has a temperature of 38.6°C and a respiratory rate of 37. The baby appears distressed, and there are widespread crackles and wheezing sounds when listening to the chest. The pulse rate is 170 BPM. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute bronchitis
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Acute Bronchiolitis in Children
This child is experiencing acute bronchiolitis and needs to be admitted to the hospital for supportive care. Ribavirin may also be necessary. The child is showing clear signs of respiratory distress. The most common cause of acute bronchiolitis is respiratory syncytial virus, but adenoviruses and parainfluenza viruses can also be responsible.
Acute bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in young children, especially those under the age of two. It is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs, making it difficult for the child to breathe. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and fluids, and may also include antiviral medications like ribavirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Echocardiography
Correct Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.
It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A syringe driver is ordered for a patient who is in the final stages of metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following medications is not compatible with dexamethasone, metoclopramide, and midazolam?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Several drugs are incompatible with cyclizine when used in syringe drivers.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort. Ejaculation is also painful. Symptoms have been present for about 3 months. Before this, he had no history of urinary problems. Examination reveals no pyrexia but a tender prostate. Urine culture is reported as normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic prostatitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Perineal Pain and Urinary Symptoms in Men
Chronic prostatitis is a likely cause of perineal pain or discomfort in men that lasts for at least 3 months. This condition may also be accompanied by lower urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction. Recurrent urinary tract infections or a history of acute prostatitis may indicate chronic bacterial prostatitis. A positive urine culture confirms the presence of bacterial prostatitis, but it may be normal in non-bacterial prostatitis. Prostate cancer is unlikely to cause perineal pain or pain on ejaculation, and the examination findings do not support this option. Acute bacterial prostatitis is a more severe illness with sudden onset, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) doesn’t cause dysuria or prostate tenderness. Cystitis doesn’t affect the prostate and doesn’t explain the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, chronic prostatitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the GP with her mother because she has been experiencing hearing difficulties in her left ear. She has a history of glue ear and has had grommets inserted in the past. During an otoscopy of the left ear, there is a significant buildup of earwax in the external auditory canal, and although the grommet is visible, the tympanic membrane is obscured. The right ear appears normal.
What would be the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Referral to ENT
Explanation:If a patient has a grommet in their ear, ear irrigation and the use of almond or olive oil drops are not recommended for managing excessive earwax, according to NICE guidelines. Using a cotton bud to remove earwax is also not advised as it can push the wax further into the auditory canal and increase the risk of infection. Similarly, ear candles are not beneficial and can cause serious injury. In such cases, the best course of action is to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Correct
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Your next patient is a 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who suffers from severe spasticity that has failed to respond to conventional treatment.
Of which of the following would NICE support a trial?Your Answer: Cannabis based product
Explanation:Patients with intractable spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis may undergo a trial of THC:CBD spray, a medicinal product derived from cannabis. CKS suggests a 4 week trial for those with moderate to severe spasticity who have not found relief from other treatments, under the supervision of a specialist. Other treatments are not recommended.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his dad, reporting that he has been unable to breathe through either nostril since he caught a cold three days ago. During examination, the doctor observes smooth pink swellings in the lower part of the lateral side of each nostril. The swellings are tender, but there is no evidence of ulceration. The boy is otherwise healthy, with no fever or facial pain, and he has never had a nosebleed before.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Prescribe nasal steroids
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Management of Inferior Turbinate Bones in Children
Description: The inferior turbinate bones are often visible in children and do not require any treatment. If a child has recent unexplained symptoms on one side of the nose, such as a blockage or bloody discharge, urgent referral to ENT is necessary to exclude nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Nasal steroids are indicated for allergic rhinitis and swelling associated with nasal polyps, but not for normal appearances of the nasal mucosa. Oral steroids are not indicated in this case. Nasal polyps are unusual in children and their presence suggests the possibility of underlying disease, such as cystic fibrosis. Referral for nasal polypectomy is only necessary if the polyps are persistent and causing obstruction that has not responded to steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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