00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study

      A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      159.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old female patient who has a previous medical history of hypothyroidism visits...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient who has a previous medical history of hypothyroidism visits the clinic with complaints of weakness, specifically in her arms, which has been ongoing for the past four months. Additionally, she has been experiencing double vision towards the end of the day, despite having a recent normal eye examination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      116.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI

      Explanation:

      Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss

      The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      128.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A study examining glucose levels in a group of individuals taking antipsychotics reports...

    Incorrect

    • A study examining glucose levels in a group of individuals taking antipsychotics reports a mean value of 7 mmol/L. The sample size is 9, and the standard deviation of the sample is 6 mmol/L. The standard error of the mean is 2 mmol/L. What is the closest estimate for the correct range of the 95% confidence interval? Additionally, suppose the study was conducted on a population of individuals aged 65 and above.

      Your Answer: 5-9 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that confidence intervals are derived from standard errors, not standard deviation, as is commonly believed. It is crucial to avoid mixing up these two terms.

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      82
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      86.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Samantha is an 85-year-old with colorectal cancer receiving palliative care. She contacts the...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 85-year-old with colorectal cancer receiving palliative care. She contacts the surgery seeking guidance on the DS1500 form. What benefits does this form provide for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Entitled to free transport, prescription costs and attendance allowance

      Correct Answer: Entitlement to high rate of attendance allowance if prognosis less than 6 months and priority in processing application.

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s prognosis is less than 6 months due to a terminal illness, she is entitled to apply for attendance allowance (AA) using the DS1500 form. Her application will be given priority and processed quickly under special provisions. Additionally, she will receive the benefit at the highest rate.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      119.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset headache that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset headache that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. He reports experiencing facial pain, fevers, a dry cough, thin yellow discharge from his nose, and nasal congestion. His temperature is normal at 37.4ºC and he experiences pain when pressure is applied to his maxillary area.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Analgesia

      Explanation:

      For this patient with acute sinusitis, analgesia is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate facial pain. Cefalexin, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is not typically recommended for sinusitis, especially if it is suspected to be caused by a viral trigger. Intranasal corticosteroids should only be considered for chronic sinusitis or if symptoms persist for 10 days or more. Intranasal decongestants can provide short-term relief for nasal symptoms, but their long-term use can lead to dependence. Therefore, simple analgesia is the best option for this patient.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      97.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, according to BNF guidance?

      Your Answer: eGFR < 30 ml / min

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last one to two days.

      On reviewing the history the parents tell you that he has previously been a well child and the only recent unwellness was a viral upper respiratory tract infection just over a week ago.

      On examination, he appears well in himself, with no temperature and is interacting and playful. However, there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. The purpura is not palpable. You also note two blood blisters on his tongue.

      There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immune mediated thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, usually after a viral infection. Children with ITP develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. Although intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, ITP is usually an acute and self-limiting condition.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, but the history and clinical features of the above child are more consistent with ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case.

      Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), meningococcal septicaemia, and Von Willebrand disease are other conditions that can cause purpura. However, HSP typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, while the trunk is usually spared. Meningococcal septicaemia causes serious illness, and Von Willebrand disease presents with a more chronic timescale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      206.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which revealed an average reading of 142/90 mmHg. Apart from hypothyroidism, there is no significant medical history. Her 10-year cardiovascular risk score is 23%. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start ramipril

      Correct Answer: Start amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For patients under 80 years old, the target blood pressure during clinic readings is 140/90 mmHg. However, the average reading is currently above this threshold, indicating the need for treatment with a calcium channel blocker.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      114.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents because...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents because of concerns regarding her hearing. They have noticed she often doesn't respond when spoken to and seems to have difficulty following instructions. Three months ago, she presented with pain and discharge from her right ear and was treated with a course of amoxicillin.
      On examination, she is well. Both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey appearance, with absent light reflexes.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Correct Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hearing impairment in a child with grey eardrum and absent light reflexes

      Otitis media with effusion and other possible causes of conductive hearing loss

      The patient is a child who had received treatment for acute otitis media three months ago. The current presentation includes hearing impairment and a grey eardrum with absent light reflexes. Based on these findings, the most likely diagnosis is otitis media with effusion, which is a common sequelae of acute otitis media and a leading cause of hearing impairment in childhood. Other possible causes of conductive hearing loss include otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, and ossicular discontinuity.

      Otosclerosis is unlikely in this case because it typically presents in the early twenties and involves the fusion of the stapes with the cochlea, which is not evident on otoscopy. Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, would be visible as a perforation or retraction pocket of the tympanic membrane and requires referral to ENT specialists. Ossicular discontinuity is usually caused by trauma, which is not reported by the patient.

      Sensorineural hearing loss is another type of hearing impairment that results from damage to the hair cells in the cochlea or the vestibulocochlear nerve. However, this diagnosis is less likely in this case because the appearance of the eardrum is abnormal, indicating a conductive rather than a sensorineural problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      138.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You have prescribed a new medication for her as treatment for an infection. A repeat INR was taken 3 days after starting her treatment. The level was 6.5.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Amikacin

      Correct Answer: Fluconazole

      Explanation:

      When taking warfarin, it is important to monitor INR levels carefully when also taking fluconazole due to their interaction. Fluconazole can cause an increase in INR. However, medications such as amikacin, vancomycin, clindamycin, and nitrofurantoin do not affect INR levels.

      Interactions of Warfarin

      Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring due to its interactions with other drugs and medical conditions. Some general factors that can potentiate warfarin include liver disease, drugs that inhibit platelet function such as NSAIDs, and cranberry juice. Additionally, drugs that either inhibit or induce the P450 system can affect the metabolism of warfarin and alter the International Normalized Ratio (INR), which measures the effectiveness of the medication.

      Drugs that induce the P450 system, such as antiepileptics and barbiturates, can decrease the INR, while drugs that inhibit the P450 system, such as antibiotics and SSRIs, can increase the INR. Other factors that can affect the metabolism of warfarin include chronic alcohol intake, smoking, and certain medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely to ensure safe and effective use of warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      236.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.

      Current blood test results:

      - Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2

      Blood test results from 6 months ago:

      - Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2

      What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      204.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon examination, there is weakness in the right triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent, and there is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Right radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the back part of the upper limb and originates from the brachial plexus, carrying fibers from spinal nerves C5-8 and T1. It supplies the triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus muscles, with the myotome of the triceps and extensor digitorum being C7 and that of the brachioradialis being C6. Both radial nerve palsy and C7 radiculopathy can result in an absent triceps jerk, and sensory loss in patients with radial nerve palsy is typically at the anatomical snuffbox, although sensation is usually normal. Trauma or entrapment, particularly between muscle heads, can damage the radial nerve, with the extent of muscle power loss depending on the lesion level. The brachioradialis muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow and tends to supinate when the forearm is pronated and pronate when the forearm is supinated. The extensor digitorum muscle extends the medial four digits of the hand. Brachial plexus injuries can cause weak triceps, wrist drop, and possibly median and ulnar nerve involvement. Radiculopathy is a mechanical compression of a nerve root, usually resulting in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension, decreased sensation in a dermatomal distribution, and pain in the neck, shoulder, and/or arm. The posterior interosseous nerve is a deep motor branch of the radial nerve that emerges above the elbow between the brachioradialis and brachialis muscles, and compression can result in finger drop, radial wrist deviation on extension, and proximal forearm pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      110.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart...

    Correct

    • In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease among elderly patients, therapy is shown to reduce cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over the five years duration of the study.

      In comparison with standard therapy, what is the number of elderly patients that needs to be treated to prevent one death over five years?

      Your Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      Reduction in Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality

      The drug has been found to decrease the risk of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, we could prevent one death. This reduction in mortality is significant and highlights the potential benefits of this drug in improving patient outcomes following a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      156.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man with advanced lung cancer is an inpatient in his local...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with advanced lung cancer is an inpatient in his local hospice for symptom control. He is currently unable to swallow medication. A General Practitioner (GP) who works at the hospice one day a week is on call when the patient has his first seizure. It has not resolved after five minutes. Resuscitation equipment is available and the GP is aware that the patient wants active treatment should a seizure occur at home or in the hospice but is not for admission to hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular diazepam

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care Patients

      Seizures are a common occurrence in palliative care patients, often caused by brain tumors or biochemical imbalances. Advance care planning is crucial to prevent unwanted hospital admissions. Here are some treatment options:

      1. Intravenous Lorazepam: Administer 4 mg by slow injection if resuscitation equipment is available.

      2. Midazolam or Diazepam: Buccal or subcutaneous administration of 10 mg midazolam or 10 mg rectal solution or per stoma of diazepam is recommended as first-line treatment. If seizure activity persists, the dose can be repeated once after 10-20 minutes.

      3. Intravenous Phenytoin: 15 mg/kg (maximum total dose 1 g) can be used for refractory seizures, but requires a filter and cardiac monitoring.

      4. Intramuscular Diamorphine: This is not a suitable treatment for seizure activity.

      5. Intramuscular Diazepam: Diazepam is a reasonable first-line treatment, but the 10 mg dose should be administered per rectum (or via a stoma if appropriate), and not intramuscularly.

      6. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital 100-200 mg intramuscularly would only be used for a protracted seizure not responding to first-line treatment, under specialist supervision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      218.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles in his feet, along with back pain, three weeks after experiencing gastroenteritis. He has also noticed a gradual increase in weakness in his legs over the past three days. During the examination, the doctor observes absent ankle tendon and patellar tendon reflexes, while bicep tendon reflexes are normal. The plantar response flexor is reduced, but sensation in his feet is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Spinal Cord Compression, CIDP, MS, and MG

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a group of syndromes that cause acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathies, resulting in muscle weakness, diminished reflexes, and paraesthesia. It is often preceded by a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. GBS can cause ascending paralysis, which may involve the cranial nerves and lead to respiratory failure. While most patients recover, some may experience persistent motor sequelae.

      Spinal cord compression is characterized by upper motor neuron signs below the level of the compression. However, the absence of reflexes and flexor plantar response in a patient doesn’t support this diagnosis.

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Patients with CIDP present with muscle weakness, numbness, tingling, pain, and difficulty walking. They may also experience fainting while standing or burning pain in the extremities.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that commonly follows a relapsing, remitting course. It can cause a variety of symptoms and signs of motor, sensory, and autonomic origin. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of MS, as well as the exclusion of other possible explanations for clinical features.

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder that causes muscle weakness, which typically fluctuates in severity and is characterized by fatigue. Unlike GBS, it doesn’t present in an acute manner, and no sensory signs are seen in MG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      99
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

    On further questioning his symptoms started about...

    Correct

    • A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

      On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.

      On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia

      When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.

      In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      141.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.

    She presents during one...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.

      She presents during one of these episodes and the ECG reveals atrial fibrillation which resolves within 30 minutes.

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation: Possible Causes and Diagnostic Tests

      Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is essential to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate left ventricular function and valve function, which would be obtained from a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be performed. A full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid tests would not be useful in characterizing and treating AF. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can identify the underlying cause of AF and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24 hour urine collection.

      Which of the following urine albumin concentrations indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?

      Your Answer: 10 mg/day

      Correct Answer: 3.5 g/day

      Explanation:

      Understanding Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not just an early indicator of renal involvement but also identifies an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, with an approximate twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients.

      To measure the total albumin excretion, the albumin: creatinine ratio is used as a useful surrogate. The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. Microalbuminuria is indicated when the albumin:creatinine ratio is ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women). Proteinuria is indicated by a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol.

      In summary, understanding microalbuminuria and proteinuria is crucial in identifying early renal involvement and increased cardiovascular risk. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful tool in measuring total albumin excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      69.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. She is receiving neo-adjuvant chemotherapy before a surgical resection. Her most recent chemotherapy was 5 days ago. Samantha visits your GP clinic complaining of fatigue and muscle pain. She reports no cough, dysuria, or skin rashes. During her visit, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.3 degrees Celsius, blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise to take paracetamol, arrange urgent bloods and review in 1 day

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      An urgent admission is necessary for Lucy due to her high risk of developing neutropenic sepsis, particularly after undergoing chemotherapy within the described time frame. Her observational parameters, including a temperature above 38 degrees celsius and a pulse of 110 bpm, are concerning and suggest the onset of sepsis. According to the NICE guidelines (2012), patients taking anticancer therapy who are suspected of having sepsis should be promptly assessed in a hospital. As the main concern in Lucy’s case is neutropenic sepsis, the other options for her management would not be appropriate.

      Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients

      Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.

      Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE doesn’t support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      136.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening headaches that have been occurring daily for the past eight weeks. He reports experiencing some visual blurring and double vision. He has been using over-the-counter co-codamol to manage the pain. He has a history of good health. During the examination, the doctor observes left-sided mydriasis.
      What medical condition is commonly associated with dilation of the pupil (mydriasis)?

      Your Answer: Cluster headaches

      Correct Answer: Third (oculomotor) nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy and Other Related Conditions

      Third nerve palsy is a condition where the eye is displaced outwards and downwards, resulting in ptosis and mydriasis. Treatment with pilocarpine drops may not be effective in this case. Cluster headaches may cause miosis instead of mydriasis, while Horner syndrome presents with unilateral partial ptosis, miosis, and hemifacial anhidrosis. Opioid addiction may also cause mydriasis during acute withdrawal. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      135.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness. He reports difficulty swallowing and has lost 2kg. He struggles with standing up from a seated position and ascending stairs. Upon examination, you note mildly tender and weak proximal muscles with intact reflexes. Laboratory results reveal a significantly elevated creatine kinase level.

      What is the definitive diagnostic test for confirming this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm a diagnosis of polymyositis, medical professionals typically rely on EMG and muscle biopsy. The condition is characterized by a gradual and painless weakening of the proximal muscles, and patients typically exhibit a significant increase in creatine kinase levels. A muscle biopsy is considered the most reliable diagnostic test for polymyositis.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      91.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Essential hypertension

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      104.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.

      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions

      Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?

      Your Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his roommate to the emergency room with an overdose of an unknown substance.

      His roommate found him unconscious in their apartment this morning and immediately called for an ambulance. There was an empty bottle of unlabelled pills on the kitchen counter which the patient admitted to taking.

      The patient is currently unresponsive and has shallow breathing. He is hooked up to a ventilator and his vital signs are being closely monitored. There is evidence of recent vomiting and he has a high fever.

      The patient has a history of suicidal ideation and his roommate is not sure where he obtained the pills from. Which of the following has he taken in overdose?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin Overdose: Symptoms and Management

      Aspirin overdose can be potentially fatal, as its effects are dose-related. Unlike with paracetamol, there are many early clinical features of aspirin overdose. These include nausea and vomiting, sweating, hyperventilation, vertigo, and tinnitus. More severe manifestations of overdose include lethargy, coma, seizures, hypotension, heart block, and pulmonary edema.

      Immediate referral to the hospital and close monitoring with supportive measures are necessary for managing aspirin overdose. In severe cases, dialysis may be indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      89
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 61-year-old woman is prescribed statin therapy (rosuvastatin 10 mg daily) for primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman is prescribed statin therapy (rosuvastatin 10 mg daily) for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) due to a QRISK2 assessment indicating a 10-year risk of CVD greater than 10%. Her liver function profile, renal function, thyroid function, and HbA1c were all normal at the start of treatment. According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial monitoring plan after starting statin therapy?

      Your Answer: Her lipid profile and HbA1c should be measured 3 months after statin initiation

      Correct Answer: Her liver function, renal function and HbA1c should be measured 12 months after statin initiation

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Requirements for Statin Treatment

      It is important to monitor patients who are undergoing statin treatment. Even if their liver function tests are normal at the beginning, they should be repeated after three months. At this point, a lipid profile should also be checked to see if the treatment targets have been achieved in terms of non-HDL cholesterol reduction. After 12 months, liver function should be checked again. If it remains normal throughout, there is no need for routine rechecking unless clinically indicated or if the statin dosage is increased. In such cases, liver function should be checked again after three months and after 12 months of the dose change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      87.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/3) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/5) 20%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed