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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the clinic after missing one dose. She typically takes one tablet at 9 pm every day, but she forgot and remembered the next morning. Her last period was 12 days ago.
What guidance should be provided to this patient?Your Answer: Take the missed dose immediately and then take the next pill at 10pm
Explanation:If a woman on COCP misses one pill, she should take the missed pill immediately and then take the next pill at the usual time. There is no need for any further action or emergency contraception such as a copper IUD. She can continue with the 7-day pill-free break as normal. Discarding the missed pill is not recommended as it could increase the risk of an unwanted pregnancy. Starting the next pack without the 7-day break is also not necessary in this case. However, if she misses two pills and there are fewer than seven pills left in the pack, she would need to start the next pack without a break.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old who is currently 26 weeks pregnant comes to see you about a thin, white discharge. Swabs are taken and clue cells are seen on microscopy. Which treatment do you initiate?
Your Answer: Single dose of metronidazole 2g
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days
Explanation:Pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis (BV) should be offered treatment using oral metronidazole. If BV is incidentally detected in a pregnant woman without symptoms, it is advisable to discuss with her obstetrician whether treatment is necessary. High-dose regimens are not recommended during pregnancy. In case the woman prefers a topical treatment or is unable to tolerate oral metronidazole, intravaginal metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream can be used as alternative choices. However, oral clindamycin is not widely recommended in primary care due to the increased risk of pseudomembranous colitis. This information is sourced from NICE CKS – Bacterial Vaginosis.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is experiencing dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal vaginal discharge during her 16th week of pregnancy. She is concerned as she has had unprotected sex with multiple partners. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a penicillin allergy. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) confirm a Chlamydia infection. What is the recommended treatment?
Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin or erythromycin are appropriate options for treating Chlamydia in a pregnant patient who is allergic to penicillin. In this case, the patient’s NAAT testing confirmed the presence of Chlamydia, but doxycycline is contraindicated due to the patient’s pregnancy. Amoxicillin is not an option due to the patient’s penicillin allergy. Ceftriaxone is not indicated for Chlamydia, and doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Therefore, azithromycin or erythromycin are the most appropriate treatment options.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. What is true about this type of cancer?
Your Answer: It is usually poorly differentiated.
Correct Answer: The tumour is confined to myometrial invasion in stage 1 of the FIGO staging system.
Explanation:Understanding Endometrial Cancer: Causes, Stages, and Treatment Options
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. It is the most common female genital cancer in the developing world, and an estimated 3% of women in developed countries will be diagnosed with this malignancy at some point in their lifetime. Here are some key points to understand about endometrial cancer:
Causes:
– It is more common among women using progestogen-containing oral contraceptives.
– Non-hormonal uterine devices have also been found to be strongly protective.
– There are two pathogenic types of endometrial cancer, one of which is associated with obesity, hyperlipidaemia, signs of hyperoestrogenism, and other disease states.Stages:
– The FIGO staging system is used to determine the stage of endometrial cancer.
– Staging is the most important prognostic factor.
– The earlier endometrial cancer is diagnosed, the higher the rate of survival at 5 years.Treatment:
– Standard management of endometrial cancer at diagnosis involves surgery, followed by chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy.
– It is most effectively treated by a combination of radiotherapy and hormone-based chemotherapy.
– The prognosis varies depending on the stage and type of endometrial cancer.Overall, understanding the causes, stages, and treatment options for endometrial cancer is important for early detection and effective management of this malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in contact with a child who had a vesicular rash on their face and chest. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing some morning sickness, but otherwise feels fine. Her blood tests show that she is not immune to varicella zoster virus. What should be the next course of action in your management plan?
Your Answer: A single dose of varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZI)
Explanation:If a pregnant woman is not immune to the varicella zoster virus and has been in close contact with someone who has the virus, it is recommended that she receive varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG can be effective up to 10 days after contact, or 10 days after the appearance of the rash in the person with the virus if there are continuous exposures.
For pregnant women who are not immune and have been exposed to chickenpox, they should be considered potentially infectious from 8-28 days after exposure if they receive VZIG, and from 8-21 days after exposure if they do not receive VZIG.
Source: RCOGChickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their inability to conceive. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 12 months, they have not been successful in getting pregnant. The husband's semen analysis came back normal. The GP decides to order a serum progesterone test to assess ovulation.
At what point should the blood test be conducted?Your Answer: 14 days before her next expected period
Correct Answer: 7 days before her next expected period
Explanation:To confirm ovulation in patients struggling to conceive, a serum progesterone level should be taken 7 days prior to the expected next period. This timing coincides with ovulation and is the most accurate way to confirm it. Taking the test 14 days before the next expected period or on the first day of the next period would not be timed correctly. It is also important to note that the timing of intercourse does not affect the confirmation of ovulation through serum progesterone testing.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) visits her GP seeking medical intervention. Despite implementing recommended lifestyle changes, she has seen minimal relief in her symptoms. She has no immediate plans of starting a family. What treatment option would be appropriate to suggest, provided there are no contraindications?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic to discuss contraception. She has recently given birth to a healthy baby girl and is currently breastfeeding. After discussing various options, she has decided to start taking progesterone-only pills. When would be the appropriate time to advise her to begin taking them?
Your Answer: After stopping breastfeeding
Correct Answer: Can start immediately
Explanation:Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time postpartum.
It is safe to use progesterone-only pills while breastfeeding, and there is no need to wait for a specific amount of time before starting them. If the pills are started after 21 days, it is recommended to use additional protection for the first 2 days. However, if the woman starts taking the pills immediately, there is no need for extra protection.
Delaying the start of progesterone-only pills can increase the risk of unwanted pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to begin taking them as soon as possible, regardless of whether the woman is breastfeeding or not.
In summary, there is no contraindication to starting progesterone-only pills during the first 21 days postpartum, and breastfeeding does not affect the decision to start them. Women can continue breastfeeding while taking these pills.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team
Explanation:Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team
Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.
For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.
Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the midwife had to perform McRoberts manoeuvre due to shoulder dystocia, but there were no other complications. After the placenta was delivered, the midwife discovered a perineal tear that involved the external anal sphincter (EAS) but did not extend to the internal anal sphincter (IAS) or rectal mucosa. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a third degree tear
Explanation:The patient has suffered a third degree perineal tear that has extended beyond the perineal mucosa and muscle, involving the EAS but not the rectal mucosa. Therefore, it is classified as a third degree tear. The appropriate course of action is to repair the tear in theatre by a clinician who is suitably trained. Repairing the tear on the ward by a midwife is not an option as it is a third degree tear. Similarly, repairing it in theatre by a clinician trained for fourth degree tears is not necessary. It is important to note that first degree tears do not require repair, but in this case, as it is a third degree tear, not repairing it would not be appropriate as it may not heal properly.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at the age of 13. She has never sought medical attention for this issue but has now decided to address it. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle, and she experiences heavy bleeding for 7 days, with 4 days of blood clots and flooding. The patient has never been pregnant and does not plan to have children. She is currently in a sexually active relationship and uses condoms for contraception. There is no significant medical or family history. Blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Insertion of intra-uterine system (IUS)
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for menorrhagia is the intra-uterine system (IUS), which has a high success rate in stopping bleeding and only requires one insertion procedure. Additionally, it provides reliable contraception. Conversely, the copper coil may exacerbate menorrhagia symptoms. While medication such as the progesterone-only pill or combined oral contraceptive pill can be used, they are not the first choice. It would be an extreme measure to refer a woman of child-bearing age for a hysterectomy, especially when there are less invasive and reversible options available to treat menorrhagia, even if the patient expresses no desire for children.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was previously agreed that she would be induced at 42 weeks if she did not go into labour naturally. She reports normal foetal movements and denies any recent illnesses. She has no relevant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the examination, her abdomen is soft with a palpable uterus and a fundal height of 40cm. What is the most crucial aspect to evaluate in this woman?
Your Answer: Bishop score
Explanation:Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications
Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 6 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient attends a routine appointment at the GP surgery to discuss her use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She informs you that she has recently started taking some medications and is concerned about their potential impact on the effectiveness of the contraceptive pill. Can you identify which medication may decrease the efficacy of the COCP?
Your Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:If enzyme-inducing drugs are taken at the same time as the combined oral contraceptive pill, its effectiveness is decreased. Out of the given choices, only St John’s wort is an enzyme inducer, while the rest are enzyme inhibitors.
Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal blood loss and a regular cycle; she is not sexually active. Pelvic examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, naproxen, or mefenamic acid should be the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, unless contraindicated. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) containing ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate, or levonorgestrel are also recommended for women who do not wish to conceive. However, for a non-sexually active woman, a non-hormonal drug would be more appropriate. Paracetamol can be prescribed if NSAIDs are not tolerated or contraindicated. Tranexamic acid is useful for menorrhagia, not dysmenorrhoea. The diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhoea is likely if menstrual pain starts 6-12 months after menarche, before menstruation, and lasts up to 72 hours, with non-gynaecological symptoms present, and a normal pelvic examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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