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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal joint pain. She has been taking ibuprofen which has provided some relief. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joint on one side, indicating synovitis. The patient's vital signs are normal and she doesn't have a fever. Blood tests are ordered and the patient is scheduled for a subsequent review.

      What would be the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer any patient who presents with new synovitis to a rheumatologist urgently for evaluation. This is because the patient may have an inflammatory joint disease that requires immediate attention. The rheumatologist can conduct blood tests to check for related auto-immune antibodies, including Antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor, while the patient is being referred.

      In case the patient is febrile or has risk factors for septic arthritis, such as intravenous drug use, it would be useful to organise joint aspiration. However, it is best to leave this decision to the rheumatologist.

      It is not advisable to reassure the patient and avoid referring them to a specialist. Early identification and treatment of inflammatory arthropathy can prevent long-term functional impairment.

      Referring the patient to rheumatology is necessary and should be done urgently. Delaying the referral can lead to the loss of hand function and other debilitating effects of untreated inflammatory arthritis.

      Referring the patient to the emergency department is not required unless the patient is febrile and hypotensive.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a check-up on his diabetes. He has...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a check-up on his diabetes. He has been living with type 1 diabetes for 32 years. Lately, he has experienced several falls that he describes as episodes where he feels dizzy and loses his balance. He has also been dealing with erectile dysfunction for a few years and takes medication for acid reflux. During the physical examination, his blood pressure drops by 30 mmHg upon standing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this patient's medical history and examination? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Autonomic Neuropathy: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the autonomic nervous system in people with diabetes. Common symptoms include a marked postural drop, gastrointestinal tract neuropathy, impotence, tachycardia, and impaired cardiovascular response to the Valsalva manoeuvre. Other symptoms may include diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal distension, atonic bladder, painless urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.

      It is important to differentiate diabetic autonomic neuropathy from other conditions with similar symptoms. Simple fainting, arrhythmia, somatic symptom disorder, and transient ischaemic attacks are all potential differential diagnoses that should be ruled out. While fainting or reflex syncope may cause a drop in blood pressure, it is often triggered by specific events and doesn’t explain the other symptoms. Arrhythmia may cause fainting or syncope, but it doesn’t account for the gastrointestinal or sexual symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder may present with physical symptoms, but they are not necessarily associated with a medical condition. Transient ischaemic attacks may cause fainting, but the other symptoms are not typical of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      117.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: The most likely cause is bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      136.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery from a watch. On examination, she is well, with no drooling, respiratory symptoms or abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Dangers of Swallowing Button Batteries: Why Immediate Action is Necessary

      Button batteries are small, but they can cause serious harm if swallowed. These batteries contain metals and concentrated solutions of caustic electrolytes, which can damage the oesophageal wall if left stuck for even just two hours. Therefore, it is essential to arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy if a child has swallowed a button battery.

      Prescribing laxatives and taking no further action is not appropriate for a high-risk foreign body like a button battery. Similarly, asking the mother to collect all stools and return in 48 hours if the battery doesn’t pass is not recommended. Instead, it may be appropriate to observe asymptomatic children for the passage of the battery in the stool, but only if certain conditions are met.

      Reassuring the mother that no action is necessary is also not appropriate, as symptoms may still develop even if the child is asymptomatic. Referring for an abdominal X-ray on the next day is also not recommended, as urgent chest and abdominal X-rays will be carried out in the hospital.

      In conclusion, immediate action is necessary when a child swallows a button battery. Delaying treatment can lead to serious harm, and it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with worsening symptoms over a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with worsening symptoms over a brief period. She reports experiencing anorexia, thirst, nausea, constipation, and polyuria. The patient has a history of breast cancer and bone metastases. What is the most suitable investigation to determine the cause of her current condition? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a common life-threatening metabolic disorder in cancer patients, particularly in those with myeloma and breast, renal, lung, and thyroid cancers. The severity of symptoms doesn’t always correlate with the degree of hypercalcaemia but often reflects the rapidity of onset. In palliative care patients, hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention.

      Intravenous fluid replacement and intravenous bisphosphonates are the treatments of choice for hypercalcaemia in patients with a reasonable short-term prognosis who are willing to undergo treatment. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can result from renal failure, so a urea level test may be useful. However, isolated acute kidney injury doesn’t explain the symptoms and may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      A high serum alkaline phosphatase level is usually present in patients with bony metastases, but it would not be the most useful test in isolation. Although anaemia may be present in some patients, it doesn’t fit with the acute clinical symptoms, and a haemoglobin level test would not provide useful diagnostic information.

      Thirst and polyuria may suggest diabetes, but the clinical history makes hypercalcaemia a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, it is crucial to consider hypercalcaemia as a potential cause of acute symptoms in palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      293.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Epidermophyton

      Correct Answer: Malassezia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      93.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents to you with a question about a long-standing visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to you with a question about a long-standing visual symptom. He reports having floaters in both eyes for many years, which have remained unchanged. He has no significant medical history and has never had any previous eye problems or visual aids. He denies any other ocular or systemic symptoms.

      Upon examination, both eyes appear normal with white and quiet sclera and normal pupillary reactions. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and fundoscopic examination reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer to eye casualty for immediate ophthalmological assessment

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and advise to seek review if any new or changing symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Floaters: Causes and When to Seek Medical Attention

      Floaters are a common occurrence caused by changes in the vitreous gel. If they have been present for a long time, they do not require referral. However, sudden changes in their appearance or density may indicate vitreous haemorrhage or retinal tear, and prompt referral is necessary.

      Intermittent floaters are usually not clinically significant, but if other high-risk associations co-exist, such as high myopia, recent intraocular surgery, known diabetic retinopathy, or a family history of retinal detachment, examination is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      436.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?

      Your Answer: High BMI (body mass index)

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention

      As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.

      To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.

      When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      321.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for the first month of life before being switched to formula. Over the past eight weeks, he has been experiencing various issues such as vomiting, regurgitation, eczema, and diarrhea. Despite these problems, he has maintained his weight at the 50th percentile. Physical examination reveals no significant findings except for some dry skin on his chest. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      If symptoms appear after formula is introduced, it strongly indicates the presence of cow’s milk protein intolerance.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      644.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You assess a 73-year-old man with metastatic bowel cancer who is in the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 73-year-old man with metastatic bowel cancer who is in the final stage and has a syringe driver. Regrettably, he is experiencing intestinal obstruction and is distressed with bowel colic. Which medication should be included in the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: Levomepromazine

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide can be used to treat respiratory secretions and bowel colic with syringe drivers.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      344.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
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