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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Her parents report that she had a cold for a few days but today her breathing has become more difficult. She has a history of viral-induced wheeze and was recently diagnosed with asthma by her GP.

      Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28/min, heart rate is 120/min, saturations are 95%, and temperature is 37.5ÂșC. She has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze, but responds well to salbutamol.

      What medications should be prescribed for her acute symptoms upon discharge?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all children who experience an acute exacerbation of asthma receive a short course of oral steroids, such as 3-5 days of prednisolone, along with a salbutamol inhaler. This approach should be taken regardless of whether the child is typically on an inhaled corticosteroid. It is important to ensure that patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler and understand how to use it. Prescribing antibiotics is not necessary unless there is an indication of an underlying bacterial chest infection. Beclomethasone may be useful for long-term prophylactic management of asthma, but it is not typically used in short courses after acute exacerbations. A course of 10 days of prednisolone is longer than recommended and may not be warranted in all cases. A salbutamol inhaler alone would not meet the recommended treatment guidelines for acute asthma.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents...

    Correct

    • A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Omphalocele

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview

      Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.

      Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.

      Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.

      Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.

      Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to the Emergency Department with persistent vomiting for...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to the Emergency Department with persistent vomiting for the past 2 days. The mother reports that the vomiting is forceful and occurs after every feed. Despite attempts to soothe the baby, the vomiting has not subsided. Upon examination, the infant appears to be in good health. The heart rate is 130 bpm, respiratory rate is 32/min, blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, capillary refill is 2 seconds, and mucous membranes are slightly dry. The infant has no fever. The paediatric registrar is called to assess the infant and decides to admit the infant for further investigation. Which diagnostic test would be most helpful in determining the cause of the vomiting?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The baby in this situation displays typical indications of pyloric stenosis. If a young infant experiences projectile vomiting after each feeding, it is important to consider the possibility of pyloric stenosis. The most effective method to visualize the issue is through an ultrasound scan, which can identify the thickening of the circular pylorus muscles. This is also the safest and most straightforward diagnostic test for a young baby. Additionally, a thorough abdominal examination may uncover a detectable lump in the upper left quadrant.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father. He noticed this morning that she was very drowsy and not feeding very much. When he measured her temperature it was 38.5ÂșC. She was born at 37 weeks gestation with an uncomplicated delivery. There is no past medical history or family history and she does not require any regular medications.

      On examination she is lethargic but responds to voice by opening her eyes. She is mildly hypotonic and febrile. There is a non-blanching rash on her torso that her father says was not there this morning.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone + IV amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: IV amoxicillin + IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history of limping. She has been experiencing illness recently. Upon examination, she has no fever and shows discomfort when moving her hip. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient Synovitis in Childhood: the Causes and Diagnosis

      Transient synovitis is a prevalent cause of hip pain in children, but it is crucial to rule out other more severe causes before diagnosing it. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is believed to be associated with viral infections, allergic reactions, or trauma.

      Transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves within a few days to weeks. However, it is essential to differentiate it from other conditions that may require urgent medical attention, such as septic arthritis or Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies are necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.

      In conclusion, transient synovitis is a common cause of hip pain in childhood, but it is crucial to exclude other more serious conditions before diagnosing it. Parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A three-day-old baby who has not passed meconium is presenting with a distended...

    Incorrect

    • A three-day-old baby who has not passed meconium is presenting with a distended abdomen and vomiting green bile. A congenital condition affecting the rectum is suspected. What test is considered diagnostic in this case?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Correct Answer: Rectal biopsy

      Explanation:

      This infant is diagnosed with Hirschsprung’s disease, a congenital abnormality that results in the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses. This condition affects approximately 1 in 5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium (more than 2 days after birth), abdominal distension, and bilious vomiting. Treatment typically involves rectal washouts initially, followed by an anorectal pull-through procedure that involves removing the affected section of bowel and creating an anastomosis with the healthy colon.

      Abdominal X-rays, abdominal ultrasounds, and contrast enemas may suggest the presence of Hirschsprung’s disease, as the affected section of bowel may appear narrow while other sections may be dilated. However, a rectal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis, as it allows for the analysis of tissue under a microscope to confirm the absence of ganglion cells.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 12-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fatigue, weight loss, frequent...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fatigue, weight loss, frequent urination, and excessive thirst. Her random plasma glucose level is 15 mmol/litre. The patient has a pre-existing condition since childhood that may be responsible for these symptoms. What is the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      The onset of diabetes in a young person, as described in this presentation, is a classic symptom and has been confirmed by a random blood glucose level of >11 mmol/L. Among the given options, only cystic fibrosis has the potential to cause the development of diabetes. Cystic fibrosis typically manifests in childhood with respiratory symptoms, but as the disease progresses, other symptoms may appear. If the pancreas is affected, it can lead to the development of diabetes mellitus. However, it may take some time for the pancreas to be affected enough to cause diabetes, which is why children with cystic fibrosis may develop diabetes later in life. While the other conditions listed may cause fatigue or weight loss, they do not typically result in polyuria or polydipsia.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ÂșC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.

      During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.

      When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.

      Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).

      What is the most likely complication?

      Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and its Complications

      Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.

      Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.

      Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to...

    Incorrect

    • A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to have another child. They previously lost their first child to Tay Sachs disease. Upon genetic testing, it is discovered that both parents are carriers of the condition. What is the likelihood that their next child will also be a carrier?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      There are two possible scenarios for inheriting the TSD gene. In the first scenario, known as CC, both parents pass on the TSD gene to their child. In the second scenario, known as Cc, only one parent passes on the TSD gene while the other does not. Regardless of which scenario occurs, the patient will be a carrier and heterozygous. The likelihood of either scenario occurring is 25%.

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner (GP). She was born at term via normal vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her birthweight was 2900 g. Her 20-week anomaly scan was unremarkable. Her parents inform you that a heart murmur was noted at her 8-week check, for which she is awaiting routine outpatient assessment. Her parents report that, over the last week, she has had episodes of going blue during feeds and friends have remarked that she looks ‘off colour’. She had a similar episode while with her GP, and oxygen saturation was recorded at 88% peripherally. As a result, the GP called 999 and transferred her to hospital. She is growing along the 25th centile. On examination, she is alert with normal vital signs. Heart sounds reveal a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge; she had palpable femoral pulses bilaterally and very slight cyanosis. Her chest is clear, without recession or signs of distress. Her liver is not enlarged.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart disease that affects around 3-6 out of every 10,000 births. It is characterized by four heart abnormalities that can cause symptoms such as cyanosis, difficulty with feeding, failure to thrive, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is typically made through echocardiography, and surgical correction is usually performed within the first two years of life.

      Cyanotic heart disease can be divided into two groups: those that present in the first week of life and those that present after the first week. Examples of conditions that present in the first week include total pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries. Examples of conditions that can present after the first week include tetralogy of Fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and tricuspid regurgitation with right-to-left shunt via atrial septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries is a cyanotic congenital heart condition where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries from the left ventricle. It typically presents with central cyanosis within the first day or two of life and is managed with intravenous prostaglandin E1 and balloon atrial septostomy.

      Total pulmonary atresia is a congenital heart abnormality where the pulmonary valve fails to develop, resulting in disrupted blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk. It can occur with or without a ventricular septal defect and is associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart defect located in the interventricular septum that allows mixing of blood between the two sides of the heart. Symptoms depend on the size of the defect and can range from asymptomatic to signs of heart failure.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery. It is not a cyanotic congenital heart defect and can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterization, or ligation. Symptoms may include decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary congestion, a cardiac murmur, or heart failure.

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  • Question 11 - What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Syndactyly

      Correct Answer: Trident hand

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.

      In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
      During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
      Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The father seems hesitant for his child to be examined, and admits he has some distrust towards modern medicine. His daughter has not received any of her routine immunisations. He explains that his daughter was slightly unwell with cold symptoms and a mild cough last week, but her condition has worsened over the past 10 days. Her cough has become so severe that she experiences uncontrollable coughing fits, which have caused her lips to turn blue and led to vomiting. Her symptoms are particularly severe at night.

      What is the most appropriate class of antibiotics to prescribe for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Macrolide antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis, can be treated with macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin. This infection typically has an incubation period of 5-10 days (maximum 21 days) before the onset of symptoms such as a mild cough, low-grade fever, and coryzal symptoms. The paroxysmal phase follows, characterized by clusters of rapid coughs, a high-pitched whoop, cyanosis, vomiting, and exhaustion. Patients are infectious from the onset of the catarrhal phase until 3 weeks after the start of the paroxysmal phase. Antibiotics are only indicated if the patient presents within 3 weeks of onset of the paroxysmal phase.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
      On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.

      Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.

      Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain and haematuria that have been present for a week. He also reports experiencing pain in both knees. Upon examination, a non-blanching purpuric rash is observed on his legs and buttocks. Urine dipstick results show blood ++ and protein +. Additionally, his renal function is abnormal with urea levels at 26.3 mmol/l and creatinine levels at 289 ÎŒmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Henoch-Schönlein Purpura from Other Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a condition that can present with a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, non-blanching purpuric rash, arthralgia, haematuria, and renal impairment. It is important to distinguish HSP from other conditions that may have similar symptoms.

      Nephrotic syndrome, for example, is characterized by significant proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema, which are not present in HSP. Urinary tract infection, on the other hand, is not associated with a purpuric rash and typically presents with urinary symptoms and positive nitrite and leukocyte dipstick tests.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that can cause acute renal failure and pulmonary haemorrhage, but it is not typically associated with a purpuric rash. Appendicitis, which can cause an acute abdomen, is unlikely to cause pain for a week and does not typically present with a rash.

      In summary, recognizing the unique symptoms of HSP and distinguishing it from other conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      58
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  • Question 16 - A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the emergency department due to seizures. The parents present a video of the contractions that seem to resemble colic. They also express worry about their child's development, noting a change. An EEG and MRI head are conducted, revealing hypsarrhythmia and an abnormality, respectively. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudo seizures

      Correct Answer: West's syndrome

      Explanation:

      West’s syndrome is characterized by infantile spasms, which can be mistaken for colic by families. However, it is crucial to recognize that there is an underlying pathology indicated by abnormal EEG and MRI results, with hypsarrhythmia being a classic feature of West’s syndrome. While seizures in babies may resemble infantile colic or pseudo seizures, the presence of abnormal EEG readings confirms a brain pathology. There is no evidence of infection or fever to suggest febrile convulsions. Partial seizures with sensory auras are often associated with temporal lobe seizures.

      Understanding Infantile Spasms

      Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.

      Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.

      Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 60% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased respiratory effort, and poor weight gain over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notes a parasternal heave and a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border.
      What is the true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer: Following closure of this defect, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall separating the two lower chambers of the heart. Here are some important points to know about VSD:

      Closure of the defect reduces the risk of infective endocarditis: Once the VSD is surgically repaired, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics are not required before high-risk procedures.

      Cardiac catheterisation is not always necessary for diagnosis: While cardiac catheterisation was previously used to diagnose VSD, echocardiography methods have advanced, making it less invasive and more accurate.

      Prophylactic antibiotics are not always necessary for dental procedures: Patients with surgically repaired VSD are not considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis following dental work, so prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated. However, immunocompromised patients may require antibiotics.

      Spontaneous closure is more common in infants: VSDs in infants under one year of age are more likely to close spontaneously. After the age of two, spontaneous closure is less likely.

      Surgical repair is indicated for uncontrolled heart failure: If a patient with VSD shows signs of uncontrolled heart failure, including poor growth, surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip. She has been complaining of pain and is hesitant to put weight on her left leg. She has a normal range of movement in both legs. Her father reports that she has been feeling sick with cold symptoms for the past few days and she currently has a temperature of 37.8 ÂșC.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.5
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant comes for a routine antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant comes for a routine antenatal check-up. During her last visit, she was advised to get vaccinated but cannot recall which ones. She has received all her childhood and school vaccinations but has not had any immunizations since becoming pregnant. What vaccines should be offered to her?

      Your Answer: Pertussis and hepatitis B vaccine

      Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenzae vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should be offered both influenzae and pertussis vaccines to protect the foetus and prevent the spread of pertussis. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.

      Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ÂșC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Group A streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?

      Your Answer: Being fed on formula milk instead of breast milk

      Correct Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated...

    Incorrect

    • In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect (VSD)?

      Your Answer: Splenomegaly

      Correct Answer: A pansystolic murmur of grade 4/6 in intensity

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Congenital Heart Disease

      A collapsing pulse can be a sign of aortic incompetence, while clubbing is a common feature of cyanotic congenital heart disease. A holosystolic murmur of varying intensity is also a characteristic of this condition. However, splenomegaly is not typically associated with congenital heart disease. In an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect, the S2 splits normally and P2 is normal. These are important characteristics to be aware of when diagnosing and treating congenital heart disease. Proper identification and management of these symptoms can greatly improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without any support?

      Your Answer: 8-9 months

      Correct Answer: 13-15 months

      Explanation:

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery today with her grandfather, as her mother is at work. Her grandfather is worried because it was also an issue for her older sister, who is 10-years-old and she is prescribed desmopressin. The girl in front of you is otherwise well and her bowels open regularly. An examination is unremarkable and she has a soft non-tender abdomen.
      What recommendations would you make?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and general advice

      Explanation:

      Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - As a FY1 in the emergency department, you encounter a mother and her...

    Correct

    • As a FY1 in the emergency department, you encounter a mother and her 5-year-old child who is complaining of a rapidly worsening sore throat, high fever, and excessive drooling from the sides of their mouth. The mother admits that the child has missed some vaccinations due to concerns about their negative effects, but is unsure which ones were omitted. Upon examination, the child is sitting on the examination couch, leaning forward and refusing to move. They are pyrexial (38.1C) with overt drooling from the sides of their mouth, and emitting a soft, high-pitched sound on inspiration. What is the most likely causative agent responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae type B is the primary cause of acute epiglottitis, which is evident in this child’s classic symptoms. It is possible that the child has not received the vaccine for this bacteria, making it a more likely culprit. While Streptococcus pyogenes and other pathogens can also cause this condition, they are less common.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ÂșC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.

      In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

      To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:...

    Incorrect

    • Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:

      Your Answer: Long thin face

      Correct Answer: Small, firm testes

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping dance practice for the past few weeks and avoiding social events. This is unusual for her, as she was previously very active in her dance group and enjoyed spending time with her friends.
      What is the recommended treatment for social anxiety in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group or individual cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Social Anxiety in Children

      When it comes to treating social anxiety in children, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended approach. It may also be helpful to involve parents or carers in the therapy process, especially for younger children. However, medication such as fluoxetine or sertraline is not advised for children with social anxiety. Mindfulness-based interventions are also not recommended as the initial treatment, as CBT should be prioritized based on the child’s cognitive and emotional maturity. It’s important to note that over-the-counter remedies like St John’s wort should also be avoided. By following these guidelines, children with social anxiety can receive effective treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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