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  • Question 1 - A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma of the greater curvature of the stomach. His staging investigations are negative for metastatic disease. What is the best treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Sub total gastrectomy, D2 lymphadenectomy and Roux en Y reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Surgical resection is the principal therapy for gastric cancer, as it offers the only potential for cure. A subtotal gastrectomy is usually performed for tumours of the distal stomach. Subtotal gastrectomy is the treatment of choice for middle and distal-third gastric cancer as it provides similar survival rates and better functional outcome compared to total gastrectomy, especially in early-stage disease with favourable prognosis. D2 dissections are recommended by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network over D1 dissections. A pancreas-and spleen-preserving D2 lymphadenectomy is suggested, as it provides greater staging information, and may provide a survival benefit while avoiding its excess morbidity when possible. Patients that undergo D2 lymphadenectomy as a standard part of surgical resection of gastric adenocarcinoma generally have better stage-for-stage overall survival figures compared to patients undergoing less extensive lymphadenectomies.
      After partial gastrectomy, some patients report disorders such as reflux esophagitis and alkaline gastritis, as well as dumping syndrome, delayed gastric emptying and malabsorption, which are defined as functional dyspepsia. Duodenogastric reflux is recognized to be a major cause of clinical symptoms after resection.
      Roux-Y reconstruction seems to be effective in reducing bile reflux into the stomach, compared to Billroth I and II procedure, and conversion to this procedure has been reported in patients with symptomatic uncontrolled reflux disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found to have a hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter that does not completely relax on swallowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) to relax that is caused by the degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the oesophageal wall. It is classified as either primary (idiopathic) or secondary (in the context of another disease). In patients with achalasia, the chief complaint is dysphagia to both solids and liquids, although regurgitation, retrosternal pain, and weight loss may also occur. Upper endoscopy, barium esophagram, and oesophageal manometry play complementary roles in the diagnosis of achalasia. While upper endoscopy and/or barium esophagram are often obtained initially, manometry usually confirms the diagnosis, and upper endoscopy is indicated to rule out a malignant underlying cause. In good surgical candidates, achalasia is usually treated with pneumatic dilation or myotomy. In most other cases, an injection of botulinum toxin is attempted. If these measures fail to provide relief, medical therapy (e.g., nifedipine) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns...

    Correct

    • A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns to the clinic complaining that she develops vertigo and crampy abdominal pain after eating. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Dumping syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dumping syndrome is the effect of altered gastric reservoir function, abnormal postoperative gastric motor function, and/or pyloric emptying mechanism. Clinically significant dumping syndrome occurs in approximately 10% of patients after any type of gastric surgery and in up to 50% of patients after laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Dumping syndrome has characteristic alimentary and systemic manifestations. It is a frequent complication observed after a variety of gastric surgical procedures, such as vagotomy, pyloroplasty, gastrojejunostomy, and laparoscopic Nissan fundoplication. Dumping syndrome can be separated into early and late forms, depending on the occurrence of symptoms in relation to the time elapsed after a meal.
      Postprandially, the function of the body of the stomach is to store food and to allow the initial chemical digestion by acid and proteases before transferring food to the gastric antrum. In the antrum, high-amplitude contractions triturate the solids, reducing the particle size to 1-2 mm. Once solids have been reduced to this desired size, they are able to pass through the pylorus. An intact pylorus prevents the passage of larger particles into the duodenum. Gastric emptying is controlled by the fundic tone, antropyloric mechanisms, and duodenal feedback. Gastric surgery alters each of these mechanisms in several ways.

      The late dumping syndrome is suspected in the person who has symptoms of hypoglycaemia in the setting of previous gastric surgery, and this late dumping can be proven with an oral glucose tolerance test (hyperinsulinemic hypoglycaemia), as well as gastric emptying scintigraphy, which shows the abnormal pattern of initially delayed and then accelerated gastric emptying.

      The clinical presentation of dumping syndrome can be divided into GI symptoms and vasomotor symptoms. GI symptoms include early satiety, crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and explosive diarrhoea. Vasomotor symptoms include diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, palpitations, and an intense desire to lie down.

      The expression of these symptoms varies in different individuals. Most patients with early dumping have both GI and vasomotor symptoms, while patients with late dumping have mostly vasomotor symptoms. Patients with severe dumping often limit their food intake to avoid symptoms. This leads to weight loss and, over time, malnutrition.

      Early dumping syndrome generally occurs within 15 minutes of ingesting a meal and is attributable to the rapid transit of food into the small intestine, whereas late dumping syndrome occurs later and may be attributed to hypoglycaemia with tremors, cold sweats, difficulty in concentrating, and loss of consciousness.

      Early dumping systemic symptoms are as follows:
      Desire to lie down
      Palpitations
      Fatigue
      Faintness
      Syncope
      Diaphoresis
      Headache
      Flushing

      Early dumping abdominal symptoms are as follows:
      Epigastric fullness
      Diarrhoea
      Nausea
      Abdominal cramps
      Borborygmi

      Late dumping symptoms are as follows:
      Perspiration
      Shakiness
      Difficulty to concentrate
      Decreased consciousness
      Hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A middle-aged man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal endoscope for a benign oesophageal stricture....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal endoscope for a benign oesophageal stricture. During the procedure, he suffers an iatrogenic perforation at the site. Imaging shows a contained leak and a small amount of surgical emphysema. Which of the following is the most appropriate nutritional option?

      Your Answer: Total parenteral nutrition

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic perforation of the gastrointestinal tract
      related to diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy is
      a rare but severe adverse event, associated with
      significant morbidity and mortality

      Conservative treatment may be suitable for patients with limited oesophageal injury and contained leakage. Such patients include those suffering endoscopic iatrogenic perforation, as the patient is likely to be fasted and the diagnosis made promptly. They must remain nil by mouth, with appropriate antibiotic cover, and proton pump inhibitor therapy, total parenteral nutrition, and continued observation. Similarly, medical treatment might be suitable for cases of inoperable malignant stricture, that is, palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which of the options provided below would most likely be associated with the highest long term failure rates?

      Your Answer: Intra gastric balloon

      Explanation:

      The intragastric balloon aids weight loss by slowing the rate at which food enters the stomach and by stimulating gastric stretch receptors. But lifestyle changes, including behaviour modification, exercise and a healthy diet, are crucial for maintaining weight loss once the device is removed. Intragastric balloon is really only suitable as a bridge to a more definitive surgical solution and is associated with a high failure rates and complications.

      Gastric banding: band applied to upper stomach which can be inflated or deflated with normal saline. This affects satiety. Over a 5 year period complications requiring further surgery occur in up to 15% cases.

      Roux-en-Y gastric bypass: a gastric pouch is formed and connected to the jejunum. Patients achieve greater and more long-term weight loss than gastric banding.

      Sleeve gastrectomy: body and fundus resected to leave a small section of stomach

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done...

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    • A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done which were reported by two gastrointestinal pathologists as being ‘indefinite for dysplasia.’ Repeat endoscopy and biopsies were repeated 6 months after completing treatment with proton pump inhibitors. The results revealed no definite evidence of dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Routine surveillance every 2–3 years

      Explanation:

      This patient had endoscopy and biopsy done by different doctors and proton pump inhibitor therapy followed by repeat endoscopy and biopsy six months later which had no definite evidence of dysplasia.

      British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines state that for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus (BO) but without dysplasia, the recommended surveillance protocols are two yearly, four quadrant biopsies every 2 cm, but jumbo biopsies are not required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 31 year old banker with known multiple gastric ulcers visits the surgical...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old banker with known multiple gastric ulcers visits the surgical clinic for a review. She has not improved despite taking proton pump inhibitors for two months. Tests show that she now has a gastrinoma. Which statement is false in relation to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Most commonly found in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a gastrin-secreting tumour that can occur in the pancreas, although it is most commonly found in the duodenum. Duodenal wall gastrinomas have been identified in 40-50% of patients. These duodenal wall tumours are frequently small and multiple. Sporadic tumours occurring in the pancreas tend to be solitary and have a greater malignant potential as compared to duodenal gastrinomas.

      Primary tumours also occur in a variety of ectopic sites, including the body of the stomach, jejunum, peripancreatic lymph nodes, splenic hilum, omentum, liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, and the ovary. Over 50% of gastrinomas are malignant and can metastasize to the regional lymph nodes and the liver. One fourth of gastrinomas are related to multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I and are associated with hyperparathyroidism and pituitary adenomas.

      The symptoms in 90-95% of patients with gastrinomas are similar to the symptoms of common peptic ulcer disease. Usually, persistent abdominal pain exists that is less responsive to medical treatment.
      Sometimes, symptoms may relate to a complication of peptic ulcer disease, such as bleeding (e.g., melena, hematemesis), gastric outlet obstruction (e.g., vomiting), and perforation (e.g., peritoneal irritation).
      Other symptoms include gastroesophageal reflux, diarrhoea, steatorrhea, and weight loss, all of which are secondary to acid hypersecretion. Vitamin B-12 malabsorption, which is not correctable by oral intrinsic factor, may also be observed.

      Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (SRS) is very useful to identify the primary lesions preoperatively. SRS is the most sensitive non-invasive method for localizing the primary tumours and metastases. It also is helpful for detecting the presence of liver or bone metastasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain....

    Correct

    • A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain. An endoscopy is done which shows that he has a punched out ulcer on the anterior wall of the stomach which is shallow and measures 0.8cm in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease can involve the stomach or duodenum. Gastric and duodenal ulcers usually cannot be differentiated based on history alone, although some findings may be suggestive. Epigastric pain is the most common symptom of both gastric and duodenal ulcers, characterized by a gnawing or burning sensation and that occurs after meals—classically, shortly after meals with gastric ulcers and 2-3 hours afterward with duodenal ulcers.

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test in the evaluation of patients with suspected peptic ulcer disease. At endoscopy, gastric ulcers appear as discrete mucosal lesions with a punched-out smooth ulcer base, which often is filled with whitish fibrinoid exudate. Ulcers tend to be solitary and well circumscribed and usually are 0.5-2.5 cm in diameter.
      Treatment of peptic ulcers varies depending on the aetiology and clinical presentation. The initial management of a stable patient with dyspepsia differs from the management of an unstable patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage. In the latter scenario, failure of medical management not uncommonly leads to surgical intervention.

      Treatment options include empiric antisecretory therapy, empiric triple therapy for H pylori infection, endoscopy followed by appropriate therapy based on findings, and H pylori serology followed by triple therapy for patients who are infected. Breath testing for active H pylori infection may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man presents with a five-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents with a five-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain along with episodes of dysphagia to liquids. An upper GI endoscopy is performed and no mucosal abnormality is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Motility disorder

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia that is episodic and nonprogressive and varies between solids and liquids is more likely to represent a motility disorder. It may also associated with retrosternal chest pain.

      Motility disorder is a condition where the nerves and muscles in the gastrointestinal tract are not working together correctly, which cause difficulty in the digestive process. These conditions include chronic intractable constipation, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), chronic intestinal pseudo-obstruction, gastroparesis, Hirschsprung’s disease, and oesophageal achalasia, among other disorders.

      In addition to imaging studies, these conditions are usually evaluated with manometry studies which measure the pressure in different areas of the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 39 year old man presents with dysphagia, which he has had for...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old man presents with dysphagia, which he has had for several years. Medical history shows that he has achalasia and has had numerous dilatations. Over the past month, his dysphagia has worsened. At endoscopy, a friable mass is noted in the oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a rare neurological deficit of the oesophagus that produces an impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter and decreased motility of the oesophageal body. Achalasia is generally accepted to be a pre-malignant disorder, since, particularly in the mega-oesophagus, chronic irritation by foods and bacterial overgrowth may contribute to the development of dysplasia and carcinoma.
      When oesophageal cancer develops in patients with underlying achalasia, diagnosis tends to be in the more advanced stages of cancer, compared to cases with no achalasia, because both physicians and patients often regard symptoms such as dysphagia and chest discomfort as attributable to the achalasia, rather than to other causes. Therefore, additional approaches that would lead to earlier diagnosis might be pursued less aggressively.
      Achalasia is a predisposing factor for oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36 year old female presents to the clinic with a 6 week...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old female presents to the clinic with a 6 week history of discomfort just below her ribcage which is relieved by eating. She develops haematemesis and undergoes an upper GI endoscopy. An actively bleeding ulcer is noted in the first part of the duodenum. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Injection with adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is usually defined by a bleeding source proximal to the ligament of Treitz although some may also include a bleeding source in the proximal jejunum. Upper GI bleeding emergencies are characterized by hematemesis, melena, haematochezia (if the bleeding is massive and brisk) and evidence of hemodynamic compromise such as dizziness, syncope episodes and shock. The most commonly used endoscopic haemostatic interventions include epinephrine (adrenaline) injection, thermal coagulation and endoscopic clipping at the ulcer site to constrict, compress and/or destroy the bleeding vessel. Injection of 30 mL diluted epinephrine (1:10 000) can effectively prevent recurrent bleeding with a low rate of complications. The optimal injection volume of epinephrine for endoscopic treatment of an actively bleeding ulcer (spurting or oozing) is 30 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30 year old man is diagnosed on oesophageal biopsies to have loss...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man is diagnosed on oesophageal biopsies to have loss of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is an oesophageal motor disorder characterized by aperistalsis of the oesophageal body and lack of relaxation of the lower sphincter in response to swallows.
      Achalasia cardia is one of the common causes of motor dysphagia. Pathophysiologically, achalasia cardia is caused by loss of inhibitory ganglion in the myenteric plexus of the oesophagus. In the initial stage, degeneration of inhibitory nerves in the oesophagus results in unopposed action of excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine, resulting in high amplitude non-peristaltic contractions (vigorous achalasia); progressive loss of cholinergic neurons over time results in dilation and low amplitude simultaneous contractions in the oesophageal body (classic achalasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has a ten year history of treatment refractory anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Plummer Vinson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) is the most common form of anaemia worldwide and can be due to inadequate intake, decreased absorption (e.g., atrophic gastritis, inflammatory bowel disease), increased demand (e.g., during pregnancy), or increased loss (e.g., gastrointestinal bleeding, menorrhagia) of iron. Prolonged deficiency depletes the iron stores in the body, resulting in decreased erythropoiesis and anaemia.
      Symptoms are nonspecific and include fatigue, pallor, lethargy, hair loss, brittle nails, and pica. Diagnostic lab values include low haemoglobin, microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells on peripheral smear, and low ferritin and iron levels. Once diagnosed, the underlying cause should be determined. Patients at risk for underlying gastrointestinal malignancy should also undergo a colonoscopy.
      Iron deficiency anaemia is treated with oral (most common) or parenteral iron supplementation. Severe anaemia or those with concomitant cardiac conditions may also require blood transfusions. The underlying cause of IDA should also be corrected. IDA may manifest as Plummer-Vinson syndrome (PVS): triad of postcricoid dysphagia, upper oesophageal webs, and iron deficiency anaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 43 year old construction worker is rushed to the A&E department after...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old construction worker is rushed to the A&E department after complaining of chest pain after an episode of severe vomiting. He was found to be in shock. What would be his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Boerhaave’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave syndrome refers to an oesophageal rupture secondary to forceful vomiting and retching. They are often associated with the clinical triad (Mackler’s triad) of vomiting, chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema. Other symptoms include epigastric pain, back pain, dyspnoea and shock. This condition was universally fatal before the age of surgery.

      Ideal management for Boerhaave syndrome involves a combination of both conservative and surgical interventions.

      Mainstays of therapy include the following:
      – Intravenous volume resuscitation
      – Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
      – Prompt endoscopic and/or surgical intervention

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a collapsed state with an episode of melaena. Previous history is significant for post prandial abdominal pain for 5 weeks and is usually worse after having a meal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Posterior duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers and unlike gastric ulcers, are caused by increased gastric acid secretion. Duodenal ulcers are commonly located anteriorly, and rarely posteriorly. Anterior ulcers can be complicated by perforation, while the posterior ones bleed. The reason for that is explained by their location. The peritoneal or abdominal cavity is located anterior to the duodenum. Therefore, if the ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate, whereas if a posterior ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate the gastroduodenal artery and bleed.
      Patients with duodenal ulcers will usually have a history of epigastric pain that occurs several hours after eating. The pain is often improved by eating food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old male presents with intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids. An...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents with intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal dysphagia occurs when there is a difficulty with the passage of solid or liquid material through the oesophagus, specifically the region between the upper and lower oesophageal sphincter. It results from either abnormal motility of this segment of the oesophagus or obstruction.
      Common causes of dysphagia:
      Gastro-oesophageal reflux—waterbrash, regurgitation, due to dysmotility or stricture
      Achalasia—classically hold-up relieved by carbonated beverages
      Motility disorders—may be associated with central chest pain, systemic disease (scleroderma, dermatomyositis)
      Oesophageal cancer—progressive, weight loss
      Head and neck cancer—pain, dysphagia, otalgia, >90% smokers, often excess alcohol consumption
      Pharyngeal pouch—slowly progressive, regurgitation, gurgling
      Web—able to swallow only small amounts, “can’t swallow tablets”
      Stroke
      Neurodegenerative disorders—parkinsonism, motor neurone disease, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis
      Presbyphagia

      Endoscopy has the advantage of potentially yielding a histological diagnosis. The overall rate of oesophageal perforation after flexible endoscopy involving oesophageal instrumentation, biopsy, or dilatation is 2.6%

      Oesophageal manometry remains the investigation of choice in suspected motility disorders. Manometry can classify oesophageal dysmotility into rare specific disorders such as achalasia and diffuse oesophageal spasm or more common non-specific motility disorders that do not respond directly to drug treatment but may improve if related reflux or psychiatric disturbances are treated. The symptoms of non-specific motility disorders may have an uncertain relation to the manometric abnormalities

      Management is based on the history, findings of the clinical investigations, and prognosis for the individual patient. The underlying disorder is treated, but the impact of dysphagia on nutrition and hydration will compromise any intervention unless managed effectively. Poor physical condition from malnutrition or dehydration will lead to a suboptimal rehabilitation process, in both duration and completeness of recovery and inadequate management of dysphagia contributes to this. A malnourished person is at risk of decompensation of the swallow, leading to dysphagia. The clinical swallow assessment is used to determine safely modified diets that reduce malnutrition and dehydration. This may range from nil by mouth with total enteral support to full oral route or a balance of the two. Enteral feeding is essential to maintain nutritional status when oral feeding is suspended, even if only for a short time. Prompt involvement of a dietitian is thus essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      13
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  • Question 17 - A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer

      Explanation:

      Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      4.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (17/17) 100%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (17/17) 100%
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