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  • Question 1 - When do most infants begin to smile? ...

    Correct

    • When do most infants begin to smile?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - As an F1 in the emergency department, you receive a 15-year-old girl who...

    Correct

    • As an F1 in the emergency department, you receive a 15-year-old girl who has been brought in from her high school due to complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, you discover that she is septic and can only provide a brief medical history before becoming drowsy. The surgical team suspects that she may have a perforated appendicitis and requires immediate surgery. Unfortunately, the patient's parents cannot be reached with the contact numbers provided by the school, and the patient is not in a state to provide consent for the operation. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Take the patient to surgery immediately

      Explanation:

      According to GMC, it is permissible to administer emergency treatment to a child or young person without their consent in order to save their life or prevent their health from seriously deteriorating. This means that obtaining consent from their parents, seeking permission from others, or obtaining a court order is not required.

      Understanding Consent in Children

      The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.

      For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.

      In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient with vesicoureteral reflux?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram

      Correct Answer: Radionuclide scan using dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.

      What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?

      Your Answer: Exclusion from school for one week

      Correct Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - Which feature is not typical of physiological jaundice? ...

    Correct

    • Which feature is not typical of physiological jaundice?

      Your Answer: Associated anaemia

      Explanation:

      Physiological Jaundice in Infants

      Physiological jaundice is a common occurrence in newborns, affecting around 90% of infants. It typically appears after the first two to three days of life and is caused by an increase in the breakdown of red blood cells and the relative immaturity of the liver. This type of jaundice is not usually a cause for concern and will often resolve on its own within a few weeks. However, if anemia is present, it may indicate a more serious underlying condition, such as hemolytic anemia. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor newborns for signs of jaundice and to investigate any potential underlying causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings her 6-week-old son to your GP. Her son has been...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 6-week-old son to your GP. Her son has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past three weeks. He has now developed a cough which had caused concern. The mother describes coughing followed by periods in which the child stops breathing and turns blue. The child appears lethargic.
      What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this illness?

      Your Answer: Bordetella pertussis

      Explanation:

      When infants have whooping cough, they may not have the typical whoop sound due to their inability to take a deep breath after coughing. Instead, they may experience apnoeas and cyanosis. Based on the symptoms of coryza followed by severe coughing fits, it is likely that the cause of this child’s condition is Bordetella pertussis. Klebsiella pneumoniae is an unlikely cause as it typically affects patients in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus commonly causes skin infections and pneumonia from this bacteria is more common after surgery. While Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause pneumococcal disease, which is a possibility in this case, it typically presents with sudden onset fever, malaise, and a cough with purulent or bloody sputum.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most frequent complication associated with this illness?

      Your Answer: Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in a swimming pool. The child is unresponsive and requires intubation for airway management. Upon examination, the child is found to have global hypotonia and abnormal reflexes, indicating possible hypoxic brain injury. What is the most crucial intervention for this child?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic cooling

      Explanation:

      The most important intervention for reducing the likelihood of significant hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury in neonates with poor neurological status following a traumatic delivery and acidosis is therapeutic cooling at 33-35 degrees. This approach attempts to prevent severe brain damage. The use of sodium bicarbonate correction, blood transfusion, skin to skin contact with mum, and vitamin K are not essential or effective in reducing brain damage from hypoxic injury.

      Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury

      Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.

      The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.

      Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon taking her medical history, you find no developmental issues. She is currently at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. During the physical examination, you observe a short webbed neck and broad chest. After conducting a karyotype analysis, you discover an abnormality. What is the most prevalent heart condition linked to this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      The most frequently observed cardiac defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (45 XO) is a bicuspid aortic valve, which is more prevalent than coarctation of the aorta. Additionally, aortic root dilation and coarctation of the aorta are also associated with this condition.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
      What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK

      The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old primiparous woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primiparous woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes in for a consultation after her foetal anomaly scan revealed polyhydramnios and a midline sac containing bowel. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. She had planned for a home birth and is now concerned about how this condition will affect her delivery.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Plan for induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Correct Answer: Schedule an elective caesarean section

      Explanation:

      If a foetus is diagnosed with exomphalos before birth, it is recommended to schedule and perform a caesarean section at term to reduce the risk of sac rupture, infection, and atresia. While a ward delivery provides access to theatres, specific surgical planning is necessary to minimize complications. Instrumental delivery in theatre does not decrease the risk of sac rupture. It is important to explain to the mother why hospital delivery is necessary and the risks associated with a home birth. Induction of labour at 37 weeks is not advisable as it increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately describes Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA)?

      Your Answer: The carer genuinely believes the child to be ill

      Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death

      Explanation:

      Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another: A Dangerous Parenting Disorder

      Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA) is a serious parenting disorder that involves a parent, usually the mother, fabricating symptoms in their child. This leads to unnecessary medical tests and surgical procedures that can harm the child. In some extreme cases, the parent may even inflict injury or cause the death of their child.

      FDIA is a form of child abuse that can have devastating consequences for the child and their family. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the signs and symptoms of FDIA and to report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities. Early intervention and treatment can help protect the child and prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Accident and Emergency department by her parents. On a background of high-grade fever and lethargy over the last 12 hours, the child had an episode of jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and incontinence of urine. She has failed to recover full consciousness after the episode. At presentation, she is poorly responsive to name-calling, but responsive to pain. She is however maintaining her airway and oxygen saturation is 95% on air. Limited neurological examination is unremarkable. Non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain is normal. Lumbar puncture is performed and reveals a slightly raised opening pressure, moderately increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein, CSF lymphocytosis and normal glucose.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: IV acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The child in question is suffering from viral encephalitis, which is typically treated with IV acyclovir. The recommended dosage is 5 mg/kg every 8 hours for 5 days, or 10 mg/kg every 8 hours for at least 14 days in cases of encephalitis. Encephalitis should be suspected when a patient presents with altered behavior, decreased consciousness, focal neurology, or seizures, along with a viral prodrome of fever and lethargy. The most common cause of encephalitis is the herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), with other common causes including cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and Japanese encephalitis. Diagnostic tests should include a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, inflammatory markers, blood glucose, blood cultures, and serum for viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR). A CT scan of the brain is necessary to rule out structural brain lesions and raised intracranial pressure. Lumbar puncture is then performed. Mortality in untreated viral encephalitis is high, so IV acyclovir should be started within 30 minutes of the patient arriving. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, but in this case, acyclovir is the most appropriate treatment. While MRI may aid in diagnosis, CSF analysis is sufficient, and IV cefotaxime and IV mannitol are not the most urgent steps in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who reports...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who reports that her daughter becomes breathless when climbing stairs at home. The mother is concerned as her daughter is unable to keep up with her peers. During the examination, multiple small bruises of varying ages are observed on both lower legs. The patient is afebrile and appears to be in good health. A soft systolic murmur is heard on the left sternal edge during cardiac examination. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a mass in both the left and right hypochondriac regions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Children under the age of 6 are less likely to be affected by TTP, which typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 30 and 50 and is often accompanied by neurological and renal symptoms. ITP is characterized by bleeding and petechiae, with low platelet counts but normal levels of other blood cells. DIC is typically a result of an underlying condition such as trauma, burns, or sepsis, and is often accompanied by systemic symptoms and circulatory collapse.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A mother brings her 12-year-old boy into the Emergency Department. She is concerned...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 12-year-old boy into the Emergency Department. She is concerned as he has started to limp over the last few days and is in pain. There is no history of trauma; he has no temperature and is otherwise well. You notice he is overweight for his age.
      Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Hip Conditions: Slipped Femoral Epiphysis, Perthes’ Disease, Septic Arthritis, and Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Hip conditions in children can present with a variety of symptoms and causes. One common condition is slipped femoral epiphysis, which typically affects boys aged 10-16 who are overweight. Symptoms include a painful limp, limited internal rotation, and displacement of the femoral head on X-ray. Treatment involves surgical fixation.

      Another condition is Perthes’ disease, which is avascular necrosis of the femoral head and typically affects younger children aged 4-10, more commonly in boys. Symptoms include an intermittent limp and limited joint movement. Treatment can be medical or surgical, but surgery may result in limb shortening and a permanent limp.

      Septic arthritis presents with an acutely painful, inflamed, and swollen joint, often with fever. It is more common in patients with underlying joint disease or a history of trauma. Musculoskeletal back pain is unlikely in this scenario.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease seen in children under 16. It presents with joint swelling, morning pain, limping, lethargy, reduced activity, and poor appetite, and is associated with anterior uveitis and spiking fevers. However, it is unlikely in this scenario due to the chronicity of symptoms and the child’s overall health.

      In conclusion, pediatric hip conditions can have various causes and symptoms, and proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A two-hour-old baby born at 38+5 weeks in the Special Care Baby Unit...

    Incorrect

    • A two-hour-old baby born at 38+5 weeks in the Special Care Baby Unit is exhibiting mild respiratory distress, with subcostal recessions and grunting. The baby's respiratory rate is 68/min without any apnoeas, their heart rate is 150 bpm, and their axillary temperature is 36.8ºC. The baby appears pink, with normal pre-post ductal saturations and no additional heart sounds. Fontanelles are normal, and their birth weight is within the normal range.

      The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation and a thin fluid line in the right horizontal fissure. What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meconium in liquor

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section delivery

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is most likely the diagnosis for a baby with mildly raised respiratory rate and increased work of breathing in the hours after labour, with all other observations being normal. Caesarean section delivery is the most important risk factor for TTN, with other risk factors including male gender, birth asphyxia, and gestational diabetes. Breech presentation is not a risk factor for TTN, while meconium in liquor would make meconium aspiration the most likely diagnosis. Fever during vaginal delivery would make other infective differentials more likely, but a sepsis screen would be needed to rule this out before a diagnosis of TTN could be made.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old girl presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and has been constipated...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and has been constipated since birth and did not pass meconium until she was 3 days old. Height and weight are at the fifth percentile. On examination, the abdomen is distended and a PR examination causes stool ejection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung disease is a bowel disease that is present at birth and is more common in boys than girls, occurring five times more frequently. The typical symptoms include vomiting of bile, swelling of the abdomen, difficulty passing stool, and failure to pass meconium within the first two days of life. However, in some cases, the disease may not become apparent until later in childhood or adolescence. A colon biopsy is used to diagnose the condition, which reveals a segment of bowel that lacks nerve cells.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 2-day-old baby has her heel prick test done, and it comes back...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old baby has her heel prick test done, and it comes back that she has a raised level of immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT).
      What is the most suitable subsequent test for this infant?

      Your Answer: Sweat test

      Explanation:

      At day 5 of life, newborns undergo a heel prick test to check for various metabolic diseases including cystic fibrosis (CF), sickle cell disease, and congenital hypothyroidism. A positive result for CF is indicated by elevated levels of immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) and requires a sweat test to confirm the diagnosis. If the sweat test is also positive, the baby is diagnosed with CF.

      Diagnosis of Cystic Fibrosis through Sweat Test

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. One of the most reliable ways to diagnose CF is through a sweat test. This test measures the amount of chloride in a patient’s sweat, which is abnormally high in those with CF. A normal value is less than 40 mEq/l, while a value greater than 60 mEq/l indicates CF.

      However, there are some causes of false positive results, such as malnutrition, adrenal insufficiency, glycogen storage diseases, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, G6PD, and ectodermal dysplasia. On the other hand, false negative results can occur due to skin edema, which is often caused by hypoalbuminemia or hypoproteinemia resulting from pancreatic exocrine insufficiency.

      In conclusion, the sweat test is a reliable method for diagnosing CF, but it is important to consider the potential causes of false positive and false negative results. Proper interpretation of the test results can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for patients with CF.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      Common Bleeding Disorders in Children

      Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.

      Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.

      Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.

      Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents after they witnessed him having a seizure. He had been experiencing a fever and cold symptoms for the past three days. His father also noticed a rash on his chest and a swollen tongue yesterday. The boy has met all of his developmental milestones prior to this incident.

      After being assessed, the medical team has determined that the boy is safe to go home. What advice should the parents be given?

      Your Answer: An ambulance must be called if another seizure occurs and persists for longer than five minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than five minutes, they should call an ambulance. The presence of a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue in the vignette suggests a diagnosis of scarlet fever, which is often associated with febrile seizures. However, it is important to note that simple febrile seizures lasting only a few minutes are generally not a cause for concern. It is not recommended to prescribe prophylactic antipyretics as they have not been shown to reduce seizure frequency according to NICE guidelines. Referral to a paediatric neurologist is only necessary if the child has neurodevelopmental delay or signs of a neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?

      Your Answer: Son

      Correct Answer: Sister

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar...

    Incorrect

    • An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar scores at birth. During examination, the infant is found to have micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patau syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      A neonate is born exhibiting micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are all classic signs of Edward’s syndrome. This childhood genetic syndrome is often diagnosed prenatally, but in some cases, it may not be detected until after birth when the neonate presents with low apgar scores. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for those with Edward’s syndrome is very high, and the average life expectancy is only 5-12 days. Survivors of this syndrome often experience complications affecting multiple organs. It is important to note that many genetic syndromes share similar features, making clinical diagnosis challenging without genetic testing. As such, it is essential to be familiar with the most common features of each syndrome for final medical examinations.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A couple, one male and one female, seek genetic counselling as a family...

    Incorrect

    • A couple, one male and one female, seek genetic counselling as a family member has been diagnosed with sickle cell anaemia, an autosomal recessive condition. After testing, it is discovered that both individuals are carriers of sickle cell anaemia. The woman is currently 16 weeks pregnant.

      What is the likelihood that their unborn child will also be a carrier of sickle cell anaemia?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The statement is incorrect because if at least one parent is a carrier of sickle cell anemia, there is a probability greater than zero.

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not had a bowel movement since birth. Digital rectal examination results in the expulsion of explosive feces. No additional information is obtained from abdominal examination or blood tests.

      What is the conclusive measure for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies

      Correct Answer: Suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that causes functional intestinal obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Diagnosis of this condition requires specific diagnostic procedures. One such procedure is suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies, which demonstrate the lack of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus. Other diagnostic procedures, such as contrast-enhanced CT scans, ultrasound of the hernial orifices, upper GI fluoroscopy studies, and sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies, are not as effective in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. It is important to accurately diagnose this condition to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old boy visits the GP with his father. His father is worried...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy visits the GP with his father. His father is worried as he has noticed scars on his son's arms and after a lengthy conversation, his son has confessed to self-harming on multiple occasions. The GP has decided to refer the boy to CAMHS (Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services). What is the most appropriate approach to minimize the likelihood of future self-harm?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Self-Harm: Psychological Interventions and Care Plans

      Self-harm is a serious issue that requires appropriate treatment. While drug treatment is not recommended, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), psychodynamic therapy, and problem-solving therapy can be effective. It is important to offer sessions of a psychological intervention that are specifically structured for people who self-harm, while also tailoring the treatment plan to each individual. Family therapy is not recommended for this particular issue. Developing a care plan with agreed-upon aims for longer-term treatment is also crucial. Overall, a combination of psychological interventions and care plans can help reduce self-harm.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Twice as common in girls

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth before goes into spontaneous labour...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth before goes into spontaneous labour and you are assisting in the vaginal delivery of a baby girl weighing 3.2 kg. To assess the newborn's health, you use the Apgar score. Can you provide the correct components of the Apgar score?

      Your Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability

      Explanation:

      To evaluate the well-being of a newborn, medical professionals use the Apgar scoring system. This system takes into account the infant’s pulse, respiratory function, skin color, muscle tone, and reflex response.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness. During the examination, you detect a distinct smell of pear drops on her breath. Despite the severity of her condition, she insists on leaving to attend a friend's birthday party. After discussing the potential consequences of leaving, she appears to comprehend the risks and can articulate her decision. However, her parents believe she should remain for treatment. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment

      Explanation:

      This person is below the age of 16 but is considered to have the ability to make decisions. As a result, they have the right to consent to treatment without the need for parental approval. However, if they choose to decline treatment, their best interests must be taken into account. In this case, the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis, and leaving without treatment would likely result in death. Therefore, it would be reasonable to conclude that it is in their best interests to receive treatment.

      According to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidelines, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person when it comes to treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, if a child lacks the capacity to consent, parental consent can be relied upon. In Scotland, parents are unable to authorize treatment that a competent young person has refused. In England, Wales, and Northern Ireland, the laws regarding parents overriding a young person’s competent refusal are complex.

      When a young person refuses treatment, the harm to their rights must be carefully weighed against the benefits of treatment to make decisions that are in their best interests. This is outlined in paragraphs 30-33 of the GMC’s ethical guidance for individuals aged 0-18 years.

      Understanding Consent in Children

      The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.

      For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.

      In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a routine check-up due to...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a routine check-up due to his recent development of poor near vision, without any history of eye trauma. He is tall, measuring at the 99th percentile for his age, and is performing well in school. During the medical history, he reports experiencing fatigue easily during physical activity. Upon examination, you observe that he has a high arched palate, pectus excavatum, and long arms. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge during the cardiovascular exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disease with cardiovascular complications such as aortic root dilation and aneurysm. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, family history, and genetic testing. The Ghent criteria are commonly used, with emphasis on cardiac manifestations. Echocardiographic surveillance is required, and prophylactic medications are used to reduce the chance of aortic root dilation. Aortic regurgitation may require surgery. Marfan syndrome is associated with non-cardiac features, and the clinical criteria can be found on the American National Marfan Foundation website.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.

      What mutation is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: BRAF mutation

      Correct Answer: BRCA mutation

      Explanation:

      Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.

      There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.

      It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (19/30) 63%
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