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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-cyprindiol

      Explanation:

      Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.

      Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

      Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.

      Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.

      Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia, occasional post-coital spotting and lower abdominal pain since having sexual intercourse with a new partner without using barrier methods. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and a pregnancy test is negative.
      A pelvic examination reveals a blood stained purulent discharge, and cervical excitation is elicited on bimanual examination. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and temperature 37.3 °C. Cervical and high-vaginal swabs are sent for analysis.
      The patient reports she had two previous episodes of gonorrhoeal infection.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 1 g ceftriaxone IM (single dose), followed by metronidazole 400 mg orally twice daily and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious condition resulting from an ascending sexually transmitted infection, commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Patients with PID may present with symptoms such as chronic lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, irregular bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, and purulent vaginal discharge. It is important to identify and treat PID promptly, as it can lead to complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and pelvic adhesion formation.

      The management of PID depends on the severity of the presentation. Patients who are haemodynamically stable can be treated in the primary care setting with a single dose of ceftriaxone IM, followed by metronidazole and doxycycline for 14 days. However, patients with pyrexia, nausea and vomiting, or suspicion of a tubo-ovarian abscess or pelvic peritonitis should be admitted to hospital for IV antibiotics.

      It is important to note that NICE recommends treating patients who are likely to have PID without waiting for swab results. In patients considered high-risk for gonococcal infection, who have no indication for admission to hospital for parenteral antimicrobial treatment, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1 g IM, followed by 14 days of metronidazole and doxycycline is recommended. Ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or azithromycin should be avoided in women at high risk of a gonococcal infection due to increased resistance against quinolones.

      In conclusion, early identification and prompt treatment of PID is crucial to prevent complications. Treatment should be tailored to the severity of the presentation and the patient’s risk factors.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth comes to the gynaecology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth comes to the gynaecology clinic complaining of worsening menstrual pain over the past three years. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has found no relief. She is sexually active with her husband and experiences pain during intercourse. Additionally, she has dysuria and urgency when urinating. She has been trying to conceive for two years without success. During the examination, her uterus appears normal in size, but there is tenderness and uterosacral nodularity upon rectovaginal examination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility are classic signs of endometriosis, a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. The presence of uterosacral nodularity and tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Some patients with endometriosis may also experience urinary symptoms due to bladder involvement or adhesions. Uterine leiomyoma, or fibroid, is a common pelvic tumor that causes abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pressure and pain, and reproductive dysfunction. However, it does not typically present with uterosacral nodularity and tenderness on rectal examination. Interstitial cystitis causes urinary frequency and urgency, with pain relieved upon voiding. Pelvic inflammatory disease presents with fever, nausea, acute pain, malodorous vaginal discharge, and cervical motion tenderness/adnexal tenderness.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
      Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Annual fasting glucose testing is appropriate

      Correct Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.

      For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old woman is experiencing amenorrhoea and has been referred for further investigation...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman is experiencing amenorrhoea and has been referred for further investigation by her general practitioner. Her serum levels show a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) of 4 u/l (women: 2-8 u/l), luteinising hormone (LH) of 12 u/l (women: 2-10 u/l), and testosterone of 3.5 mmol/l (adult women: 0.5-2.5 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes and Symptoms

      Amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods, can be caused by a variety of factors. One common cause is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is characterized by hyperandrogenisation and chronic anovulation. PCOS is diagnosed when a patient has at least two of the following: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, excess androgen activity, and polycystic ovaries. Elevated plasma LH is a relatively specific sign of PCOS, which can lead to symptoms such as hirsutism, acne, menstrual disturbances, and obesity.

      Other common causes of amenorrhoea include pregnancy, Turner syndrome, primary ovarian failure, anorexia nervosa, and hyperprolactinaemia. Pregnancy is a cause of amenorrhoea that should not be ignored, but elevated testosterone levels are not consistent with this. Turner syndrome is due to a karyotypic abnormality (XO), which results in primary ovarian failure. Anorexia nervosa often results in hypopituitarism, which causes amenorrhoea, but FSH and LH levels would be low and testosterone normal. Hyperprolactinaemia inhibits gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), causing lowered LH and FSH levels, but testosterone levels are unlikely to change in women.

      In summary, understanding the causes and symptoms of amenorrhoea can help with diagnosis and treatment. PCOS, pregnancy, Turner syndrome, primary ovarian failure, anorexia nervosa, and hyperprolactinaemia are all potential causes to consider.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods and difficulty conceiving for the past 2 years. During the examination, she is found to be obese (BMI 32) and hirsute. Mildly elevated androgen levels are also observed.
      What is the probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is showing signs of polycystic ovarian syndrome, which is characterized by elevated androgen levels, obesity, and hirsutism. Diagnosis requires meeting two of the following three criteria: polycystic ovaries, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, and clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism. Blood tests may show raised LH and free testosterone levels, and it is important to rule out other potential causes and assess for insulin resistance/diabetes and lipid levels. Hypothyroidism, anorexia nervosa, Turner syndrome, and prolactinoma are all potential causes of subfertility, but they do not present with the same symptoms as polycystic ovarian syndrome.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman visits the gynaecology department with complaints of painful, heavy periods...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits the gynaecology department with complaints of painful, heavy periods and difficulty getting pregnant. She is worried as she and her partner plan to start a family soon. Upon examination, an ultrasound scan shows a submucosal uterine fibroid measuring 4.5 cm. What is the most suitable treatment option for her fibroids?

      Your Answer: Myomectomy

      Explanation:

      If a woman is experiencing fertility issues due to large fibroids, the most effective treatment is myomectomy. In the case of a woman with a large submucosal fibroid that is distorting the shape of her uterus, options such as levonorgestrel-releasing IUS and tranexamic acid may provide symptomatic relief but will not address the underlying fertility issue. Medical treatment may also be ineffective due to the size of the fibroid. Hysterectomy and hysteroscopic endometrial ablation are not appropriate for women who wish to conceive in the future.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy menses since she started...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy menses since she started menstruating at the age of 13. She has regular periods every 28 days, which last for seven days, during which time she works from home as she needs to change pads every 1–2 hours.
      She is in a relationship and does not wish to conceive at present. A full blood count and a pelvic ultrasound are abnormal.
      You offer her the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), as per the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
      Which of the following is a contraindication to the insertion of levonorgestrel IUS?

      Your Answer: Distorted fibroid uterus

      Explanation:

      The use of the levonorgestrel IUS as a contraceptive or treatment for menorrhagia is not recommended in women with a distorted fibroid uterus due to the complexity and difficulty of the procedure. Other contraindications include current pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, trophoblastic disease, breast/endometrial/ovarian/cervical cancer, postpartum endometritis, septic abortion/miscarriage in the last three months, and cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia. Migraine with aura is an absolute contraindication to the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill, but the levonorgestrel IUS can be safely used. It is safe to use the levonorgestrel IUS during breastfeeding, and it can be used by women of all ages, regardless of parity. A history of venous thromboembolism is a contraindication to the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill, but the levonorgestrel IUS is safe to use according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old female presents with worries about not having started her periods yet....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female presents with worries about not having started her periods yet. Her sisters all began menstruating at age 13. During the examination, it was observed that the patient is short, has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics, and has widely spaced nipples. Additionally, a systolic murmur was detected under the left clavicle. What finding is consistent with the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increased serum androgen levels

      Correct Answer: Increased FSH/LH

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with primary amenorrhoea and raised FSH/LH levels, it is important to consider the possibility of gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome or a deletion of the short arm of one X chromosome, which can result in widely spaced nipples and other physical characteristics. In Turner’s syndrome, the lack of estrogen and progesterone production by the ovaries leads to an increase in FSH/LH levels as a compensatory mechanism. Therefore, an increase in FSH/LH levels is consistent with this diagnosis. Cyclical pain due to an imperforate hymen typically presents with secondary sexual characteristics, while increased prolactin levels are associated with galactosemia, and increased androgen levels are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. In the case described, a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome is likely, and serum estrogen levels would not be expected to be elevated due to gonadal dysgenesis.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). As she desires to conceive, her physician prescribes metformin to enhance her fertility. What is the mechanism of action of metformin in treating PCOS?

      Your Answer: Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome patients commonly experience insulin resistance, which can result in complex alterations in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions experiencing leakage whenever she coughs or sneezes, despite regularly performing pelvic floor muscle exercises. The patient expresses her reluctance towards any surgical intervention for this issue. What would be the next suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuses surgery, duloxetine may be prescribed as a treatment option. Bladder retraining exercises are not effective for stress incontinence, but may be helpful for urge incontinence. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are medications used to manage urge incontinence, while desmopressin is used for nocturnal enuresis.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans...

    Correct

    • A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?

      Your Answer: Depo-Provera

      Explanation:

      Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.

      Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?

      Your Answer: Irregular bleeding

      Explanation:

      During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her doctor seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her doctor seeking advice on contraceptive options post-childbirth. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and does not intend to breastfeed. When can she start this treatment?

      Your Answer: Immediately following childbirth

      Explanation:

      It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth. The manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK, Nexplanon®, recommends waiting at least 4 weeks postpartum for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It may take some time for fertility to return after pregnancy.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
      Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen concentration peaks just before menstruation

      Correct Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:

      Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
      Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.

      2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
      Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.

      3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
      Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.

      4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
      Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.

      5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
      Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding cervical ectropion is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding cervical ectropion is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Is more common during pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Is less common in women who use the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cervical Ectropion

      Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.

      Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 18-year-old woman presents to the specialist clinic for insertion of an intrauterine...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old woman presents to the specialist clinic for insertion of an intrauterine system (IUS). During the procedure, the clinician observes scarring around the anterior genital area and an absent clitoris. Upon further discussion, the patient reveals that she underwent surgery during a family trip abroad about 8 years ago, but cannot recall the specifics. She expresses contentment with the situation and declines any further investigation or involvement of law enforcement. What should be the clinician's next course of action?

      Your Answer: Respect the woman's wishes

      Correct Answer: Report the incident to the police

      Explanation:

      If an 18-year-old woman is suspected to be a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM), the best course of action is to report the incident to the police as FGM is illegal in the UK. Contacting the medical director or providing the patient with self-referral pathway information are not appropriate responses. It is important to acknowledge the patient’s wishes, but due to her age, reporting the incident to the police is necessary for investigation.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old female presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit at 7 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit at 7 weeks gestation with heavy vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound confirms an intra-uterine miscarriage. After 14 days of expectant management, the patient returns for a follow-up appointment. She reports experiencing light vaginal bleeding and is still haemodynamically stable without signs of ectopic pregnancy. An ultrasound scan confirms an incomplete miscarriage. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Vaginal misoprostol

      Explanation:

      When managing a miscarriage, medical treatment typically involves administering vaginal misoprostol alone. According to the NICE miscarriage Clinical Knowledge Summary, medical management is recommended if expectant management is not suitable or if a woman continues to experience symptoms after 14 days of expectant management. Misoprostol can be given orally or vaginally. If products of conception are not expelled after medical treatment or if symptoms persist after 14 days of expectant management, manual vacuum aspiration or surgical management may be considered. However, hospitalization and observation are not usually necessary unless the patient is experiencing hemodynamic instability. In most cases, women can take misoprostol and complete the miscarriage at home. Oral methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 12 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 12 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.

      She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if the first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the next step is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). If the patient remains hrHPV positive but cytology negative at 12 months, they should have another HPV test in a further 12 months. If the patient becomes hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive, cytology negative or inadequate at 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with worsening left-sided abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with worsening left-sided abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly 4 hours ago and has been steadily getting worse. She reports that the pain started following intercourse. She is uncertain about the date of her last menstrual period as she currently has the Mirena coil fitted. She denies any vaginal bleeding or discharge. Apart from the pain, she has no other symptoms and her vital signs are stable.

      Upon examination, her lower abdomen is tender on palpation but there is no guarding or rigidity. Pelvic exam including bimanual exam is unremarkable. The Mirena coil threads are clearly visualised. An ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pelvic cavity and a urinary pregnancy test is negative.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adnexal torsion

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      When an ovarian cyst ruptures, it can cause sudden and severe pain on one side of the pelvis, especially after sexual activity or strenuous exercise. During a physical exam, the lower abdomen may be tender, but there may not be any other noticeable abnormalities. An ultrasound can reveal the presence of fluid in the pelvic area. It’s important to note that ovarian or adnexal torsion can also cause similar symptoms, including sharp pain on one side, nausea, and vomiting. However, in this case, a palpable mass may be felt during a physical exam, and an ultrasound may show an enlarged ovary with reduced blood flow.

      Gynaecological Causes of Abdominal Pain in Women

      Abdominal pain is a common complaint among women, and it can be caused by various gynaecological disorders. To diagnose these disorders, a bimanual vaginal examination, urine pregnancy test, and abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scanning should be performed in addition to routine diagnostic workup. If diagnostic doubt persists, a laparoscopy can be used to assess suspected tubulo-ovarian pathology.

      There are several differential diagnoses of abdominal pain in females, including mittelschmerz, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, ectopic gestation, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Mittelschmerz is characterized by mid-cycle pain that usually settles over 24-48 hours. Endometriosis is a complex disease that may result in pelvic adhesion formation with episodes of intermittent small bowel obstruction. Ovarian torsion is usually sudden onset of deep-seated colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress. Ectopic gestation presents as an emergency with evidence of rupture or impending rupture. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by bilateral lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal discharge and dysuria.

      Each of these disorders requires specific investigations and treatments. For example, endometriosis is usually managed medically, but complex disease may require surgery and some patients may even require formal colonic and rectal resections if these areas are involved. Ovarian torsion is usually diagnosed and treated with laparoscopy. Ectopic gestation requires a salpingectomy if the patient is haemodynamically unstable. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually managed medically with antibiotics.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman, who has completed her family, visits the Gynaecology Clinic following...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman, who has completed her family, visits the Gynaecology Clinic following the detection of abnormal cervical cytology on a cervical smear screen. A biopsy is taken from a lesion found on the ectocervix during clinical examination under anaesthesia. Further investigations and histology confirm stage 1b cervical cancer.

      What treatment option would be most suitable for this patient, taking into account the stage of the cancer?

      Your Answer: Radical hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cervical Carcinoma: A Comparison

      Cervical carcinoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the squamous cells of the cervix. Its main symptoms include abnormal bleeding or watery discharge, especially after sexual intercourse. The risk of developing cervical cancer increases with sexual activity.

      The disease is staged based on the extent of its spread, with stages 0 to 4 indicating increasing severity. For stage 1b cervical cancer, the recommended treatment is a Wertheim’s radical abdominal hysterectomy. This procedure involves removing the uterus, tubes, ovaries, broad ligaments, parametrium, upper half or two-thirds of the vagina, and regional lymph glands. However, in older patients, the surgeon may try to preserve the ovaries to avoid premature menopause.

      Other treatment options include simple hysterectomy, which is not suitable for cervical cancer that has spread beyond the cervix, and radical trachelectomy, which is appropriate for stage 1 cancers in women who wish to preserve their fertility. Close cytological follow-up is not recommended for confirmed cases of cervical cancer, while platinum-based chemotherapy is typically used only when surgery is not possible.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for cervical carcinoma depends on the stage of the disease, the patient’s age and fertility preferences, and the feasibility of surgical intervention.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a period for 7 months. She stopped taking the pill 9 months ago to try to conceive. She reports having always had irregular and heavy periods, which is why she started taking the pill at 16. She admits to gaining around 4 kg recently. She took a pregnancy test yesterday, which was negative. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Women who would otherwise experience symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome may not realize they have the condition if they are using the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

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  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
      Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
      LFTs Normal
      Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
      Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Correct Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women

      Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.

      Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.

      If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.

      Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cervical swab

      Correct Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Trichomoniasis: A Common STD

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started taking the progesterone-only pill on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had unprotected sex with a new partner 3 days later. She is concerned about the lack of barrier contraception used during the encounter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill requires 48 hours to become effective, except when started on or before day 5 of the menstrual cycle. During this time, additional barrier methods of contraception should be used. Since the patient is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle, it will take 48 hours for the POP to become effective. Therefore, having unprotected sex on day 14 of her menstrual cycle would be considered safe, and emergency contraception is not necessary.

      The intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected sex, but it is not necessary in this case since the POP has become effective. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception and is not recommended for this patient. Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Return to normal recall

      Correct Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 31 - A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested to visit the General Practice Surgery to discuss the outcome of her recent smear. The results letter states that she is 'human papillomavirus negative'. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer back to routine screening, repeat in three years

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening and Referral Guidelines

      Routine Screening and Recall

      Women between the ages of 25 and 49 are screened for cervical cancer every three years. If a smear sample is negative for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV), the patient is referred back to routine recall according to her age group.

      Referral to Colposcopy

      If reflex HR HPV testing is positive, the patient is referred to colposcopy for further assessment within six weeks. Women with high-grade dyskaryosis or abnormalities in glandular cells are referred to colposcopy as urgent appointments to be seen within two weeks. Women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis and who are HR HPV positive are referred to colposcopy as routine appointments to be seen within six weeks.

      HPV Test of Cure

      Women who have undergone treatment for cervical disease are offered an HPV test of cure six months after treatment. If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and HR HPV, the woman is recalled in three years. If the 6-month post-treatment test is negative for dyskaryosis but positive for HR HPV, the woman is re-referred to colposcopy. If there is evidence of high-grade dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for reassessment.

      Recall Frequency

      Women aged 25-49 are recalled for routine screening every three years. Women aged 50-64 are recalled every five years.

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  • Question 32 - An 18 year old girl comes to the clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl comes to the clinic with a complaint of never having started her menstrual cycle. Upon further inquiry, she reports having developed secondary sexual characteristics like breast tissue growth and pubic hair. Additionally, she experiences pelvic pain and bloating. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      When a teenage girl experiences regular painful cycles but has not yet started menstruating, an imperforate hymen is a likely cause. This condition blocks the flow of menstrual blood, leading to primary amenorrhoea while allowing for normal development of secondary sexual characteristics like pubic hair and breast growth. The accumulation of menstrual blood in the vagina can cause discomfort and bloating due to pressure. Other potential causes of amenorrhoea include chemotherapy during childhood, Turner’s syndrome, and polycystic ovary syndrome, which can all interfere with the production of estrogen and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 33 - Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?

      Your Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
      2: A BMI over 35 kg/m² should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
      3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
      4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
      5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 34 - A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past, visits the Preoperative Gynaecology Clinic for sacrospinous fixation to address a vault prolapse. The surgeon discusses the potential risks and complications of the procedure before obtaining consent. What nerve is in danger of being harmed during sacrospinous fixation for vault prolapse treatment?

      Your Answer: Sciatic

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage in Obstetric and Surgical Procedures

      During obstetric and surgical procedures, nerve damage can occur in various parts of the body. One such instance is a total vault prolapse, which can occur following a hysterectomy. Two surgical options for management include sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation. While sacrocolpopexy involves suturing the vaginal vault to the sacrum, sacrospinous fixation requires suturing the top of the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament. However, complications such as damage to the sciatic nerve and pudendal vessels can occur with the latter procedure.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve is most common during total knee arthroplasties when the patient is placed in the lithotomy and lateral positions for extended periods of time. On the other hand, the femoral nerve can be injured during abdomino-pelvic surgery, aortic cross-clamp, invasive procedures to access the femoral vessels, and hip arthroplasty. Inguinal hernia repair is the most common cause of damage to the inguinal nerve.

      Lastly, isolated damage to the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh is not associated with obstetric surgery. However, damage to the main femoral nerve is commonly seen in abdominal hysterectomies due to compression by retractor blades. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential complications and take necessary precautions to prevent nerve damage during procedures.

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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distension and feeling bloated, which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distension and feeling bloated, which has been getting worse over the last six months. She has no other medical history of note. She has regular periods with a 30-day cycle without heavy or intermenstrual bleeding.
      On examination, there is an abdominal mass in the region of the left iliac fossa which is tender to palpation. The doctor orders blood tests and arranges an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen to assess the mass further.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Rectocele

      Correct Answer: Ovarian serous cystadenomas

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abdominal Mass in Women

      One of the common symptoms that women may experience is an abdominal mass that is painful on palpation. This can be caused by various conditions, including ovarian serous cystadenomas, polycystic ovarian syndrome, fibroids, cystocele, and rectocele.

      Ovarian serous cystadenomas are benign tumors composed of cysts suspended within fibrotic stroma. They are usually asymptomatic but can cause pain and mass symptoms when they grow to a size greater than 10 cm. These tumors are prone to torsion and can present as an acute abdomen. Removal of the mass is curative, and histological examination is essential to ensure there are no malignant features.

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with irregular periods, skin acne, and weight gain. Fibroids, on the other hand, are hormone-driven and can cause menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, constipation, and urinary symptoms. Subserosal, pedunculated, or ovarian fibroids can also present as an abdominal mass.

      Cystocele and rectocele are conditions that present with a lump or dragging sensation in the vagina. Cystocele is associated with urinary frequency, incontinence, and frequent urinary tract infections, while rectocele is associated with incomplete emptying following a bowel motion and pressure in the lower pelvis.

      In conclusion, an abdominal mass in women can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed 3 years ago after laparoscopic surgery. She complains of chronic pelvic pain that intensifies during her menstrual cycle and deep dyspareunia. Despite trying ibuprofen, the progesterone-only pill, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, she has not found relief. The patient has no medical history, allergies, or current desire to conceive. What would be the recommended course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Trial a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with endometriosis is not experiencing relief from their symptoms with a combination of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories and the combined oral contraceptive pill, they may be prescribed gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists (GnRH agonists) as a second-line medical management option. progesterone-only contraception may also be offered in this stage of treatment. GnRH agonists work by down-regulating GnRH receptors, which reduces the production of oestrogen and androgen. This reduction in hormones can alleviate the symptoms of endometriosis, as oestrogen thickens the uterine lining. The copper intrauterine device is not an appropriate treatment option, as it does not contain hormones and may actually worsen symptoms. NICE does not recommend the use of opioids in the management of endometriosis, as there is a high risk of adverse effects and addiction. Amitriptyline may be considered as a treatment option for chronic pain, but it is important to explore other medical and surgical options for endometriosis before prescribing it, as it comes with potential side effects and risks.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 37 - A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
      Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
      Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities

      Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.

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  • Question 38 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On examination, the clinician notes a 3 cm by 2 cm lump extending from the left side of the vulva. A biopsy of the lump is taken for histological diagnosis.
      Which of the following is the most common vulval carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas

      Explanation:

      Types of Vulval Cancers and Their Characteristics

      Vulval cancers are rare gynaecological malignancies that primarily affect elderly women. The most common type of vulval cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, which typically presents as a growth on the inner surface of the labia minora. Symptoms include vulval discomfort, itching, discharge, and bleeding. Biopsy and histological investigation are necessary to diagnose vulval lumps, and treatment involves vulvectomy and dissection of inguinal glands. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinomas, Bartholin’s gland cancer, and sarcoma are other types of vulval cancers, each with their own unique characteristics and rarity. Early detection and treatment are crucial for a positive prognosis.

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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP after testing positive on a urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP after testing positive on a urine pregnancy test, suspecting she is 4-5 weeks pregnant. She expresses concern about the possibility of having an ectopic pregnancy, having recently heard about a friend's experience. Her medical records indicate that she had an IUS removed 8 months ago and was treated for Chlamydia infection 5 years ago. During a gynaecology appointment 2 months ago, a cervical ectropion was identified after a 3 cm simple ovarian cyst was detected on ultrasound. The patient also admits to excessive drinking at a party two nights ago, having previously consumed a bottle of wine per week. Which aspect of this patient's medical history could increase her risk?

      Your Answer: Drinking to excess

      Correct Answer: Previous Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease can raise the likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy occurring.

      If a patient has a history of Chlamydia, it may have caused pelvic inflammatory disease before being diagnosed. Chlamydia can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes, subfertility, and an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. Any condition that slows the egg’s movement to the uterus can lead to a higher risk of ectopic pregnancy.

      While drinking excessively during pregnancy is not recommended due to the risk of neural tube defects and foetal alcohol syndrome, it is not linked to ectopic pregnancy. However, smoking is believed to increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, highlighting the importance of asking about social history when advising patients who want to conceive.

      A history of cervical ectropion is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but it can make a patient more prone to bleeding during pregnancy.

      The previous use of an IUS will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. However, conceiving while an IUS is in place will raise the risk of this happening. This is due to the effect of slowing the ovum’s transit to the uterus.

      A simple ovarian cyst will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Large ovarian cysts can cause ovarian torsion, but a 3 cm cyst is not a cause for concern, and the patient does not have any signs or symptoms of ovarian torsion or ectopic pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.

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  • Question 40 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal bleeding and mild discomfort during intercourse for the past two weeks. She reports feeling generally healthy. During a vaginal exam, she experiences tenderness and slight dryness. What is the next step to take in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Refer to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) clinic

      Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound (TVUS)

      Explanation:

      Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.

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  • Question 41 - A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried about a fishy-smelling green vaginal discharge that she has developed. The symptoms have been ongoing for two weeks and include pruritus, dysuria and frequency. Vaginal swabs were taken and revealed a motile flagellate on wet film microscopy.
      What is the causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by a green-yellow discharge with a foul odor. Men usually do not show symptoms, while women may experience dysuria, frequent urination, and itching. Treatment involves taking oral metronidazole for seven days. Although complications are rare, pregnant women with trichomoniasis may experience premature labor. The disease is sexually transmitted, so a thorough sexual history should be taken.

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, which may be asymptomatic in women but can cause vaginal discharge and painful urination. Treatment involves a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone 500 mg.

      Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that causes chlamydia, which is often asymptomatic in women but may cause cervicitis, urethritis, or salpingitis. Treatment involves a single oral dose of azithromycin 1 g.

      Candida albicans causes thrush, which is characterized by white curd-like discharge, red and sore vulva, and hyphae visible on microscopy. Treatment involves using clotrimazole in pessary or topical form, with fluconazole used for resistant cases.

      Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which may present as a painless ulcer in the genital area called a chancre. Treatment involves using benzathine penicillin. While secondary and further stages of syphilis are becoming rare, it is important to seek treatment promptly.

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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 months. Upon conducting an abdominal ultrasound, an 8 cm mass is detected in her right ovary. Further examination reveals the presence of Rokitansky's protuberance. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian fibroma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

      Explanation:

      Teratomas, also known as dermoid cysts, are non-cancerous tumors that originate from multiple germ cell layers. These tumors can produce a variety of tissues, including skin, hair, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, cartilage, and thyroid tissue, due to their germ cell origin.

      Mature cystic teratomas have a white shiny mass or masses projecting from the wall towards the center of the cyst. This protuberance is called the Rokitansky protuberance and is where hair, bone, teeth, and other dermal appendages usually arise from.

      While ovarian malignancy is rare in young females, suspicion can be assessed using the risk of malignancy index (RMI), which takes into account serum CA-125 levels, ultrasound findings, and menopausal status.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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  • Question 43 - A 38-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception options. She has been relying...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception options. She has been relying on barrier methods but is now interested in exploring long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs), specifically the progesterone-only depo injection. What medical conditions would make this method of contraception unsuitable for her?

      Your Answer: Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs

      Correct Answer: Current breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

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  • Question 44 - A 16-year-old girl visits her nearby pharmacy at 11 am on Tuesday, asking...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her nearby pharmacy at 11 am on Tuesday, asking for the morning-after pill. She discloses that she had unprotected sex around 10 pm on the previous Saturday and is not using any birth control method. She specifically asks for levonorgestrel, as her friend had taken it a few weeks ago. Is it possible for her to receive levonorgestrel as an emergency contraception option?

      Your Answer: No, as it can only be taken up to 48 hours later. She can have ulipristal acetate, as this can be taken up to 72 hours later

      Correct Answer: Yes, as it can be taken up to 72 hours later

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) in this case. Ulipristal acetate can also be taken up to 120 hours later, but the efficacy of oral options may have decreased after 61 hours. The copper coil is not a suitable option as the patient has declined any form of birth control. Therefore, the correct answer is that levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of UPSI.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 45 - A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the...

    Incorrect

    • A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the lithotomy position. To palpate the patient’s uterus, the index and middle fingers of the right hand are placed inside the vagina, while the fingers and palm of the left hand are used to palpate the abdomen suprapubically. While palpating the patient’s abdomen with her left hand, the doctor feels a bony structure in the lower midline.
      Which one of the following bony structures is the doctor most likely to feel with the palm of her left hand?

      Your Answer: Ilium

      Correct Answer: Pubis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Pelvis: Palpable Bones and Structures

      The pelvis is a complex structure composed of several bones and joints. In this scenario, a doctor is examining a patient and can feel a specific bone. Let’s explore the different bones and structures of the pelvis and determine which one the doctor may be palpating.

      Pubis:
      The pubis is one of the three bones that make up the os coxa, along with the ilium and ischium. It is the most anterior of the three and extends medially and anteriorly, meeting with the opposite pubis to form the pubic symphysis. Given the position of the doctor’s hand, it is likely that they are feeling the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones.

      Coccyx:
      The coccyx is the lowest part of the vertebral column and is located inferior to the sacrum. It is composed of 3-5 fused vertebrae and is a posterior structure, making it unlikely to be palpable in this scenario.

      Ilium:
      The ilium is the most superior of the three bones that make up the os coxa. It is a lateral bone and would not be near the position of the doctor’s palm in this scenario.

      Sacrum:
      The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and forms the posterior aspect of the pelvis. It is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae and articulates with the iliac bones via the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Although it is found in the midline, it is a posterior structure and would not be palpable.

      Ischium:
      The ischium forms the posteroinferior part of the os coxa. Due to its position, it is not palpable in this scenario.

      In conclusion, the doctor is most likely palpating the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones during the examination. Understanding the anatomy of the pelvis and its structures is important for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients.

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  • Question 46 - A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 08:30, and it is currently 10:00. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer: Perform a pregnancy test

      Correct Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed

      Explanation:

      progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

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  • Question 47 - A 58-year-old woman is referred to Gynaecology due to unexplained abdominal bloating and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman is referred to Gynaecology due to unexplained abdominal bloating and pain that has persisted for several months. She is not experiencing any other symptoms, and her examination is normal except for her obesity. Recently, she began experiencing menopausal symptoms and started hormone replacement therapy. At the age of 24, she had a right-sided salpingo oophorectomy for polycystic ovaries and has never given birth. What type of cancer is she most likely at risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms that are commonly associated with endometrial cancer, such as abdominal pain and bloating. She also has several risk factors for this type of cancer, including a history of PCOS, being nulliparous, and experiencing menopause after the age of 52. Other risk factors include obesity, endometrial hyperplasia, diabetes, tamoxifen, and unopposed estrogen. Interestingly, the risk associated with unopposed estrogen can be eliminated if progesterone is given concurrently.

      While this woman has risk factors for breast cancer, her current symptoms are not indicative of this type of cancer. She does not have any risk factors for cervical cancer. It is important to note that abdominal pain and bloating are not normal symptoms of menopause. Normal menopausal symptoms include hot flashes, mood changes, musculoskeletal symptoms, vaginal dryness/itching, sexual dysfunction, and sleep disturbance.

      Vaginal cancer typically presents with symptoms such as a vaginal mass, vaginal itching, discharge and pain, and vulval bleeding. Risk factors for this type of cancer include advancing age, infection with human papillomavirus, previous or current cervical cancer, smoking, and alcohol consumption.

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  • Question 48 - A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with mild vaginal bleeding. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a relatively large mass on the right side of the pelvis. The patient undergoes an abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with contrast injection. The scan shows multiple enlarged lymph nodes in the pelvis, along the iliac arteries. The para-aortic lymph nodes appear normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gynaecological Malignancies: Understanding the Differences

      When a postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding, pelvic mass, and pelvic lymphadenopathy, it is important to consider the different types of Gynaecological malignancies that could be causing these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis in this case is cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which typically metastasises to the pelvic lymph nodes along the iliac arteries.

      While endometrial carcinoma (adenocarcinoma) is the most common Gynaecological malignancy, it would also be a possibility in this patient. Ovarian cancer, the second most common Gynaecological cancer, typically metastasises to the para-aortic lymph nodes and is not associated with vaginal bleeding.

      Vulval cancers tend to metastasise to the superficial inguinal node and are unlikely to present with a pelvic mass or vaginal bleeding. Cervical adenocarcinomas are rare and derived from the endocervix, while uterine leiomyosarcoma often extends beyond the uterine serosa and occasionally metastasises to distant organs through blood vessels. However, neither of these malignancies typically present with vaginal bleeding and pelvic lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, understanding the differences between the various types of Gynaecological malignancies is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe nausea and vomiting, as well as a 3-hour history of spotting. Her last menstrual period was approximately ten weeks ago. She denies any abdominal pain, focal neurological deficits and headaches. She has had normal cervical screening results, denies any history of sexually transmitted infections and had her Mirena® coil removed one year ago. She has been having regular unprotected sex with a new partner for the past month. Her menstrual cycle length is normally 28 days, for which her period lasts five days, without bleeding in between periods.
      She reports being previously fit and well, without regular medication. She is a non-smoker and drinks heavily once a week.
      On examination, her heart rate is 81 bpm, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and temperature 37.2 °C, and her fundal height was consistent with a 16-week-old pregnancy. A bimanual examination with a speculum revealed a closed cervical os. A full blood count reveals all normal results. A human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) level and a vaginal ultrasound scan are also carried out in the department, which reveal the following:
      Serum hCG:
      Investigation Result Impression
      hCG 100,295 iu/l Grossly elevated
      Transvaginal ultrasound:
      Comment Anteverted, enlarged uterus. No fetal parts observed. Intrauterine mass with cystic components observed
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Endometrial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hydatidiform Mole in Early Pregnancy: Clinical Features and Treatment Options

      Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs due to abnormal fertilization of an ovum, resulting in a non-viable pregnancy. The condition presents with clinical features such as vaginal bleeding, excessive vomiting, a large-for-dates uterus, and a very high hCG level. Pelvic ultrasound may reveal a ‘snowstorm’ appearance from the intrauterine mass and cystic components.

      The diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is crucial as it determines the treatment options. If the patient wishes to retain her fertility, dilation and evacuation are offered. However, if fertility is not desired, a hysterectomy is recommended. The former has fewer post-operative complications but carries a higher risk of post-operative gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. Antiemetics are prescribed to manage nausea and vomiting.

      Twin pregnancy and complete miscarriage are differential diagnoses, but the absence of fetal parts and the grossly elevated hCG level point towards hydatidiform mole. Pre-eclampsia cannot be diagnosed before the second trimester, and endometrial carcinoma is unlikely to cause a uterine mass or elevated hCG levels.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is crucial for appropriate management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 50 - A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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