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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a locum general practitioner, to inform you about her pregnancy. Upon reviewing her medical history, you discover that Emily has asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, constipation, and a recent deep vein thrombosis. She is currently taking senna, over the counter ranitidine, budesonide and salbutamol inhalers, and rivaroxaban. However, none of her medications have been altered due to her pregnancy status. Can you identify which medication needs to be changed?

      Your Answer: Budesonide

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should not use novel oral anticoagulants, so those who are currently taking them should switch to low molecular weight heparin.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively managing her epilepsy with carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily. She is expecting a baby girl soon and is eager to breastfeed. What guidance should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: No changes required

      Explanation:

      There is no need to increase the dose of medication as the patient’s epilepsy is well controlled on the current regimen. Switching from carbamazepine to lamotrigine is also unnecessary and not safer.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A young girl requires an episiotomy during labour. The incision should be made:...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl requires an episiotomy during labour. The incision should be made:

      Your Answer: One incision anterior to the vagina and one incision posterior to the vagina down the mid-line

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risks of Different Episiotomy Incisions

      Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening during childbirth. However, the location and direction of the incision can have different risks and complications. Here are some important things to know about the risks of different episiotomy incisions:

      1. Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
      This is the most common type of episiotomy. However, cutting too close to the anus can cause damage to the anal sphincter, leading to fecal incontinence.

      2. Anterior to the vagina, straight up the mid-line so that the incision lies mid-way between the vagina and the external urethral orifice
      This type of incision can damage the external urethral orifice, leading to urinary incontinence.

      3. Posterior to the vagina, straight down the mid-line into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
      Cutting down the midline posterior to the vagina can harm the perineal body, leading to both fecal and urinary incontinence, as well as pelvic organ prolapse.

      4. Anterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the labium minus
      This type of incision can damage Bartholin’s glands, which can lead to pain and discomfort during sexual intercourse.

      5. One incision anterior to the vagina and one incision posterior to the vagina down the mid-line
      This type of incision can cause damage to both the urethral orifice and the perineal body, leading to both urinary and fecal incontinence.

      In conclusion, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of episiotomy with your healthcare provider and to understand the potential complications of different types of incisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus is larger than expected for the gestational age. She has pre-existing type 2 diabetes and is taking medication to manage her blood glucose levels. She wants to know which medication is safe to take while breastfeeding.

      Which of the following medications can she continue taking?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking sulfonylureas (such as gliclazide) as there is a potential risk of causing hypoglycemia in newborns. Similarly, exenatide, liraglutide, and sitagliptin should also be avoided during breastfeeding. However, it is safe to use metformin while breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She gave birth 3 weeks ago and is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports a 4 day history of increasing pain in her left breast, which has not improved with continued feeding and expressing. During examination, she appears healthy, but her temperature is 38.5ºC. There is a small area of redness above the left nipple, which is sensitive to touch. She has no known allergies.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin & encourage to continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Lactation mastitis is a prevalent inflammatory condition of the breast that can have infectious or non-infectious origins. The primary cause is milk stasis, which can occur due to either overproduction or insufficient removal.

      In cases of non-infectious mastitis, the accumulation of milk leads to an inflammatory response. Occasionally, an infection may develop through retrograde spread via a lactiferous duct or a traumatised nipple, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common organism.

      Symptoms of lactation mastitis include breast pain (usually unilateral) accompanied by an erythematosus, warm, and tender area. Patients may also experience fever and flu-like symptoms.

      The first-line approach to managing lactation mastitis is conservative, involving analgesia and encouraging effective milk removal (either through continued breastfeeding or expressing from the affected side) to prevent further milk stasis. It is also crucial to ensure proper positioning and attachment during feeding.

      If symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of conservative management, antibiotics should be prescribed. The first-line choice is oral flucloxacillin (500 mg four times a day for 14 days), or erythromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav is the second-line choice.

      In cases where conservative and antibiotic management do not improve symptoms, other more serious causes, such as inflammatory breast cancer, should be considered. (Source – CKS mastitis)

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 29 weeks’ gestation very concerned as she has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 29 weeks’ gestation very concerned as she has not felt her baby move at all since the night before. She has a history of coeliac disease. No fetal movements can be palpated. An ultrasound scan confirms fetal death. Blood investigations were performed: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.5 μu/l (0.17–3.2 μu/l) and free thyroxine (fT4) 4 pmol/l (11–22 pmol/l). These were not performed at booking.
      According to the national antenatal screening programme, which of the following groups of patients should be screened for thyroid disorders in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Screening in Pregnancy: Identifying High-Risk Patients

      Pregnancy can increase the risk of developing thyroid disorders, which can have detrimental effects on both the mother and fetus. Therefore, it is important to identify high-risk patients and screen them for thyroid function early in pregnancy. According to updated guidelines, patients with a current or previous thyroid disease, family history of thyroid disease in a first-degree relative, autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as gestational diabetes are considered at higher risk. These patients should be screened by performing TSH and serum fT4 levels in the preconception period, if possible, or as soon as pregnancy is confirmed.

      Detecting hypothyroidism early is crucial, as symptoms can mimic those of a normal pregnancy, making detection harder. Hypothyroidism in the mother can lead to fetal demise, severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, congenital malformations, and congenital hypothyroidism. Patients diagnosed with overt hypothyroidism in pregnancy should be started on levothyroxine immediately.

      There is no recommendation to screen women with a history of chronic kidney disease or hypertension for thyroid disease in pregnancy. However, chronic kidney disease is a high-risk factor for pre-eclampsia, and commencing aspirin at 12 weeks through to delivery is essential to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia or any of its complications. Women who are carriers of the thalassaemia trait are not screened for thyroid disease in pregnancy, but their partner should be tested for carrier status to assess the risk to the fetus.

      In conclusion, identifying high-risk patients and screening for thyroid function early in pregnancy can help prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Confirmed miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion

      Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:

      Trophoblastic Disease
      This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.

      Ectopic Pregnancy
      This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.

      Threatened Miscarriage
      This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.

      Confirmed Miscarriage
      After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.

      Septic Abortion
      This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She is currently taking losartan 50 mg daily and her BP measures 130/88 mmHg. What guidance should be provided to this patient in this scenario?

      Your Answer: She requires no special measures and is safe to attempt to get pregnant currently

      Correct Answer: She should switch losartan to labetolol and ensure her BP is well controlled prior to attempting to get pregnant

      Explanation:

      Safe antihypertensive Medications for Pregnancy

      Explanation:
      When planning to get pregnant, it is important to ensure that any medications being taken are safe for the developing fetus. In the case of hypertension, switching to a safe medication prior to conception is recommended. Labetalol is the best-studied antihypertensive in pregnancy and is considered safe. Losartan, on the other hand, is contraindicated as it may affect renal development. Simply reducing the dosage of losartan is not enough to mitigate the risks of fetal maldevelopment. It is also important to maintain good blood pressure control prior to conception. Stopping antihypertensive medications abruptly is not recommended as it may lead to uncontrolled hypertension, which is associated with increased fetal loss. By taking these precautions, women can increase their chances of carrying a healthy fetus to term.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus positive mothers who are sensitised

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant with twins presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant with twins presents to the early pregnancy unit with a 3-day history of vomiting and postural dizziness. The patient is gravida 2, parity 0, and never had such severe sickness in her previous pregnancy. No one else in the family is sick.

      She has a past medical history of hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine.

      During examination, her BMI is 16 kg/m² and she has lost >5% of her body weight in the last 3 days. She is visibly dehydrated and her blood pressure is 98/75 mmHg.

      What aspect of the patient's history poses the highest risk for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Pregnant with twins

      Explanation:

      The risk of hyperemesis gravidarum is higher in women who are pregnant with twins. This is because each twin produces hCG, which can increase the levels of hCG in the body and lead to hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism is because it can increase levels of TSH, which is chemically similar to hCG. Age and previous pregnancies do not increase the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, but a history of hyperemesis gravidarum in a previous pregnancy can increase the likelihood of developing it in future pregnancies.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby without any...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby without any complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests which reveal a Hb level of 107 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: 95

      Correct Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Measure serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) and arrange repeat blood test in 72 hours

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be referred for immediate assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital before their scan. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and seeks guidance on how to have a healthy pregnancy. She is in good health, takes folic acid, and smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      You recognize the importance of quitting smoking for the well-being of the pregnancy and employ motivational interviewing techniques to address her smoking.

      What is the initial step in this process?

      Your Answer: Establish rapport and find out whether she wants to change

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Motivational Interviewing in Smoking Cessation during Pregnancy

      Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered approach that aims to elicit and strengthen the patient’s own motivation and commitment to change. When it comes to smoking cessation during pregnancy, there are several best practices to follow.

      Firstly, it is important to establish rapport and assess the patient’s readiness to discuss behavior change. This involves determining which stage of change the patient is at and working accordingly from there.

      Next, it is important to assess the patient’s perceived difficulties and barriers to change, often using a numerical scale. However, this should not be done as the first step.

      Explaining and advising why smoking is harmful in pregnancy should also not be the first step. Instead, it is best to find out what the patient understands about the risks of smoking in pregnancy and then evoke the patient’s own motivations for change, if present.

      It is important to avoid trying to break down any resistance shown by the patient. Instead, a therapeutic relationship resembling a partnership or team should be used as the cornerstone from which changes can be explored or pursued.

      Finally, using a numerical scale to assess the patient’s confidence and willingness to quit smoking is an important step, but should not be done in the first instance. By following these best practices, healthcare providers can effectively use motivational interviewing to support smoking cessation during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity ward due to excessive vaginal bleeding. She has a negative Rhesus factor. What is the best course of action for preventing Rhesus sensitization?

      Your Answer: Routine Anti-D immunoglobulin prophylaxis at 28 weeks

      Correct Answer: One dose of Anti-D immunoglobulin followed by a Kleihauer test

      Explanation:

      What is the recommended prophylaxis for Rhesus sensitisation in a Rhesus negative mother with antepartum haemorrhage?

      Antepartum haemorrhage increases the risk of Rhesus sensitisation and Rhesus disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies due to fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH). The correct approach is to administer one dose of anti-D immunoglobulin immediately, followed by a Kleihauer test. This test detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and estimates the volume of FMH, allowing for the calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. While routine prophylaxis at 28 weeks should still be given, there is no such thing as an anti-D immunoglobulin infusion. These recommendations are based on the British Committee for Standards in Haematology guidelines for the prevention of haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department with premature rupture of membranes. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy and is in good health. What is the optimal approach to managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe antibiotics and steroids

      Explanation:

      At 32 weeks gestation, this woman may be experiencing labor with ruptured membranes. It is important to admit her and administer steroids to promote the baby’s lung development. Antibiotics, such as erythromycin, should also be given to prevent sepsis and post-natal infection. Hospital guidelines should always be consulted, especially if Group B streptococcus is present, in which case penicillin and clindamycin may be used. If labor does not progress, the woman may be able to manage at home with temperature checks every 4-8 hours and returning to the hospital if a fever occurs. Delivery at 34 weeks may be considered if the risk of infection outweighs the risk of prematurity now that the baby’s lungs have matured.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain that started yesterday. She has a history of Von Willebrand disease. A trans-vaginal ultrasound scan confirms a missed miscarriage. The patient is currently stable without fever or hemodynamic instability. What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this patient's miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Vacuum aspiration

      Correct Answer: Vaginal misoprostol

      Explanation:

      The recommended medical management for a miscarriage is the administration of vaginal misoprostol, as stated in the 2018 NICE guidelines. This is particularly suitable for patients with a medical history of coagulopathy, such as Von Willebrand disease, as it is a safer option than expectant management. Oral methotrexate is not appropriate for a miscarriage, as it is used for the medical management of ectopic pregnancies. Salpingectomy is a surgical procedure used for tubular ectopic pregnancies, but not for miscarriages. Vacuum aspiration is a surgical option for miscarriages, but medical management is preferred as it is safer and allows the patient to have more control over the process.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting a family. She and her partner are both diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and are currently undergoing weekly methotrexate treatment. The patient was informed about the need for pregnancy advice when she began taking the medication. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: The patient will need to wait 3 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving. Her partner can continue methotrexate

      Correct Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving

      Explanation:

      To avoid teratogenic effects, both men and women must discontinue the use of methotrexate for at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which affects DNA synthesis and can harm the rapidly dividing cells of the fetus. Additionally, methotrexate can damage various semen parameters. It is not enough for only the patient to stop taking methotrexate; both partners must cease use. Taking folic acid during pregnancy does not counteract the harmful effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism and does not address the partner’s use of the drug. Waiting for 3 months is insufficient; both partners must wait for 6 months to ensure that methotrexate will not cause teratogenic effects.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of Atlantoaxial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding and has no significant medical history. However, she is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her abdomen is tender and tense, and cardiotocography reveals late decelerations. Her vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98%, heart rate 125 beats/min, blood pressure 89/56 mmHg, and temperature 35.9 ºC. What is the initial management for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Category 4 caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Category 1 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A category 1 caesarean section is necessary in cases of suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis is a major placental abruption due to intense abdominal pain and haemodynamic shock. Guidelines recommend a category 1 caesarean section if the foetus is alive and >36 weeks with foetal distress, as indicated by late decelerations on cardiotocography. This is because the presentation of placental abruption, haemodynamic shock, and late decelerations poses an immediate threat to the lives of both the mother and baby. Administering corticosteroids and observation is not applicable in this scenario, as the foetus is >36 weeks and foetal distress is present. Category 2 and 4 caesarean sections are also inappropriate, as they are not immediately life-threatening and are elective, respectively.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period as having been 4 weeks ago. She denies pain but reports severe nausea and vomiting. She has no significant past medical history and her last check-up 6 months ago did not reveal any abnormalities. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and her uterus measures 12 weeks’ size. A serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) level is drawn and found to be in excess of 300 000 iu. An ultrasound does not identify any foetal parts. What is this patient at risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastasis and thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gestational Trophoblastic Disease: Differential Diagnosis

      Gestational trophoblastic disease is a rare condition that can present with symptoms similar to other pregnancy-related complications. When evaluating a patient with suspected gestational trophoblastic disease, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

      One common misdiagnosis is occlusion of the coronary vessels, as there is no association between gestational trophoblastic disease and coronary artery disease. Rupture of the fallopian tube may be a possibility if the patient had an ectopic pregnancy, but the history and examination are not suggestive of this. Septic miscarriage is also a possibility, but the symptoms and examination findings in this scenario are more typical of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      Twin or triplet pregnancy is unlikely due to the absence of foetal parts and the elevated blood pressure. Instead, gestational trophoblastic disease should be considered when a patient presents with bleeding in early pregnancy, severe hyperemesis, new-onset hypertension prior to 20 weeks’ gestation, and a uterus that is larger than expected. An extremely elevated β-HCG and a classical ultrasound appearance resembling a ‘snow storm’ are also indicative of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      It is important to note that gestational trophoblastic disease is strongly associated with thyroid dysfunction and that the lungs are among the first sites of metastatic disease. By considering the differential diagnosis and conducting appropriate testing, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat gestational trophoblastic disease.

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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus visits her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus visits her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner to seek advice on nutritional supplementation as they plan to start trying for a baby. She is not using any contraception and her diabetes is well managed, with her latest HbA1c level at 32 mmol/mol (recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists < 48 mmol/mol). What is the most suitable recommendation for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: Commence folic acid 400 micrograms daily now and continue throughout pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily now and continue until week 12 of gestation

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplementation in Pregnancy

      Explanation: Folic acid supplementation is recommended for all women who are trying to conceive and during pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and other congenital abnormalities. The recommended dose is 400 micrograms daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. However, women with certain high-risk factors, such as diabetes, a family history of neural tube defects, or obesity, are advised to take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. It is important to continue folic acid supplementation until the end of the first trimester to ensure proper formation of the brain and other major organs in the body. Side-effects of folic acid treatment may include abdominal distension, reduced appetite, nausea, and exacerbation of pernicious anaemia.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman para 1+0 is 36+5 weeks pregnant and is being monitored...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman para 1+0 is 36+5 weeks pregnant and is being monitored and treated for pre-eclampsia. Her current treatment is with labetalol and her blood pressure has been well controlled. During her antenatal clinic visit, she reports a severe headache, one episode of vomiting, and blurred vision. Her blood pressure is currently 154/98 mmHg. Upon examination, papilloedema is observed. As a result, she is admitted to the hospital. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate and intramuscular beclomethasone

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate and plan immediate delivery

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from severe pre-eclampsia, evidenced by moderate hypertension and symptoms of headache and vomiting. According to NICE guidelines, delivery should be carried out within 24-48 hours for women with pre-eclampsia and mild to moderate hypertension after 37 weeks. Magnesium sulphate is recommended for the treatment of severe hypertension or pre-eclampsia in women who have already experienced seizures. IV magnesium sulphate should also be considered if delivery is planned within 24 hours or if there is a risk of eclampsia. Although IV hydralazine may lower blood pressure, immediate delivery and protection against eclampsia are required due to the patient’s presenting symptoms. IM beclomethasone is unnecessary as the patient is past 36 weeks. IV calcium gluconate is used to treat magnesium toxicity and is not indicated in this case. While delivery should be planned, the patient also requires protection against the development of eclampsia and seizures.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old woman presents with hypertension at 12 weeks into her pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with hypertension at 12 weeks into her pregnancy. She has no history of hypertension. She complains of headache and tenderness in the right lower quadrant. An ultrasound of her pelvis reveals multiple cysts in both ovaries. There are no signs of hirsutism or virilism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hirsutism in Women: A Differential Diagnosis

      Hirsutism, the excessive growth of hair in women in a male pattern, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Here are some possible causes and their distinguishing features:

      Molar Pregnancy: This condition is characterized by hypertension in the first trimester of pregnancy. Excessive stimulation of ovarian follicles by high levels of gonadotrophins or human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) can lead to the formation of multiple theca lutein cysts bilaterally.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: This disease, which is mostly found in women, can present with gradual onset of hirsutism without virilization. It is caused by a deficiency of 21-hydroxylase and is characterized by an elevated serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.

      Luteoma of Pregnancy: This benign, solid ovarian tumor develops during pregnancy and disappears after delivery. It may be associated with excess androgen production, leading to hirsutism and virilization.

      Adrenal Tumor: Androgen-secreting adrenal tumors can cause rapid onset of severe hirsutism, with or without virilization. Amenorrhea is found in almost half of the patients, and testosterone and dihydrotestosterone sulfate concentrations are elevated.

      Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: Women with this condition are at higher risk of developing pre-eclampsia. However, the development of hypertension in the first trimester of pregnancy makes it more likely that there is a molar pregnancy present, with theca lutein cysts seen on ultrasound.

      In summary, hirsutism in women can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 24 - Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

    Rewritten: Which ONE of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

      Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?

      Your Answer: 10 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria

      Correct Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria

      Explanation:

      If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 25 - You are summoned to the Labour Ward to assess a 29-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the Labour Ward to assess a 29-year-old woman who is receiving consultant-led care for gestational diabetes. She was induced at 38+5 weeks’ gestation and has been on oxytocin for augmentation for one hour. She is currently experiencing regular contractions, with six to seven every ten minutes, each lasting at least 45 s. The cervix is dilated to 5 cm. The cardiotocograph (CTG) displays a fetal heart rate baseline of 130 bpm, variability of 20 bpm, accelerations and variable decelerations lasting > 60 s, with a reduced baseline variability in up to 50% of contractions for 30 minutes or more.
      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with augmentation, increasing the oxytocin infusion, as per protocol

      Correct Answer: Reduce the oxytocin infusion rate

      Explanation:

      Management of Uterine Hyperstimulation Syndrome and Suspicious CTG in Labor

      Uterine hyperstimulation syndrome can lead to a suspicious CTG, which requires prompt management to prevent fetal distress. If the patient presents with uterine hyperstimulation syndrome caused by oxytocin infusion, the first step is to reduce the infusion rate and review the CTG in half an hour. If the CTG shows acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration for more than three minutes, an emergency Caesarean section should be performed if the patient’s cervix is not fully dilated. Instrumental delivery, in the form of forceps or ventouse, is only indicated under certain circumstances, and the patient must be fully dilated. Increasing the oxytocin infusion rate should be avoided as it exacerbates the symptoms of uterine hyperstimulation. When the CTG is normal, no action is required. Early decelerations occur with uterine contractions and are associated with compression of the fetal head during contraction, leading to vagal nerve stimulation and slowing of the fetal heart rate.

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  • Question 26 - You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her...

    Incorrect

    • You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her booking visit. In addition to the standard antenatal bloods she also had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine as a child. She is currently in good health.
      Rubella IgG NOT detected
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise weekly human normal immunoglobulin injections until > 20 weeks gestation + avoid infectious contacts

      Correct Answer: Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away from anyone who has rubella

      Explanation:

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 27 - A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given a dose of intramuscular syntocinon before the placenta was delivered. During the wait for the placenta, she experiences a blood loss of 400ml. Even after the placenta is delivered, the bleeding continues and she loses an additional 500ml of blood. The medical team initiates the necessary resuscitation measures and the major haemorrhage protocol. The cause of the bleeding is identified as uterine atony, and the patient is given boluses of syntocinon, ergometrine, and carboprost. However, the bleeding persists. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Intra-uterine Bakri catheter

      Explanation:

      The correct first-line surgical intervention for postpartum haemorrhage is an intra-uterine Bakri catheter. This device is used to tamponade the bleeding caused by uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine myometrium cells to contract. Hysterectomy is not the first option as it is a last resort and will make the patient infertile. Lying the patient on her left lateral side is not relevant for a woman who has already delivered her baby. Ligation of the internal iliac artery may be used, but it is not the next most appropriate step as it may lead to ischaemic complications. Intra-uterine balloon tamponade is the first-line surgical intervention if other measures fail.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 28 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing severe vomiting, making it difficult for her to retain fluids. What is the best method to determine the severity of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) scoring system

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 29 - A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned that the cardiotocograph is showing late decelerations. She is reviewed by the obstetrician on-call who states that there is fetal compromise, but no immediate risk to life. A category two caesarean section is planned.

      What is the timeframe for the delivery to be performed?

      Your Answer: Within 90 minutes

      Correct Answer: Within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections must be carried out within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This category is used when there is fetal or maternal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening. The delivery should be planned as soon as possible, but the target time is within 60-75 minutes. Category 1 caesarean section, on the other hand, is used when there is an immediate threat to the life of the woman or fetus, and the procedure should be performed within 30 minutes.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 30 - A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (11/30) 37%
Passmed