00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the Emergency Department with complaints of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her vital signs are stable and she has no fever. An ultrasound reveals that the fetal heart rate is still present and the size of the uterus is as expected. Upon examination, her cervical os is closed. How would you categorize her miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Threatened

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that a significant percentage of women who experience threatened miscarriages will ultimately miscarry. Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy in pregnant patients who present with both pain and bleeding.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational diabetes presents in her second pregnancy. She is at eight weeks’ gestation and attends the midwife booking visit.
      What is the most suitable test to diagnose gestational diabetes in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 2-hour OGTT as soon as possible following the booking visit

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a condition where pregnant women experience high blood sugar levels. It is diagnosed through a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Women with risk factors such as a BMI over 30, a previous macrosomic baby, a family history of diabetes, or from an area with high diabetes prevalence should be offered the test. Random serum glucose, fasting serum glucose, HbA1c, and urinalysis are not recommended for diagnosis. Gestational diabetes can have negative effects on both the mother and fetus, including fetal macrosomia, stillbirth, neonatal hypoglycemia, and an increased risk of type II diabetes and obesity in the baby’s later life. Women with pre-existing diabetes should have their HbA1c monitored monthly and at booking to assess pregnancy risk, but HbA1c is not used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Early detection and management of gestational diabetes is crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain that started 45 minutes ago. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding but her baby is still active, although movements are slightly reduced. She has had regular antenatal care and her medical history is unremarkable, except for a 10 pack-year smoking history. Her two previous children were born vaginally and are healthy at ages 4 and 6.

      The patient is alert and oriented but in significant pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. A cardiotocograph shows a normal baseline fetal heart rate with appropriate accelerations and no decelerations.

      What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the mother and administer steroids

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which is a medical emergency. The severity of the abruption and the risks to both the mother and the baby determine the management approach. This patient has risk factors such as chronic hypertension and smoking. Steroids should be administered to assist in fetal lung development if the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks, and not in distress. The patient’s vital signs are stable, but the volume of vaginal bleeding may not accurately reflect the severity of the bleed. The fetal status is assessed using a cardiotocograph, which indicates whether the fetus is receiving adequate blood and nutrients from the placenta. Expectant management is not appropriate, and intervention is necessary to increase the chances of a positive outcome. Immediate caesarean section is only necessary if the fetus is in distress or if the mother is experiencing significant blood loss. Vaginal delivery is only appropriate if the fetus has died in utero, which is not the case here.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant and has been admitted to the hospital due to severe pre-eclampsia. The obstetric team is worried about the possibility of eclampsia.

      What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Severe Pre-eclampsia and Eclampsia

      The recommended treatment for severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In addition, antihypertensive treatment is also important, with labetalol being the first line of treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Nifedipine and methyldopa also have a role to play.

      Magnesium sulphate should be administered to patients with severe hypertension and proteinuria, as well as those with mild or moderate hypertension and proteinuria who exhibit symptoms such as severe headache, problems with vision, severe pain just below the ribs or vomiting, papilloedema, signs of clonus, liver tenderness, HELLP syndrome, platelet count falling to below 100 ×109/L, or abnormal liver enzymes.

      The administration of magnesium sulphate involves a 4 g loading dose given intravenously over five minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 g/hr for 24 hours. In the event of recurrent seizures, an additional bolus dose of 2-4 g should be given over five minutes.

      Overall, the treatment for severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia involves a combination of intravenous magnesium sulphate and antihypertensive medication, with the dosage and administration of magnesium sulphate varying depending on the patient’s symptoms and condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

    On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

      On examination, her abdomen is non-tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 76/min, blood pressure 130/64 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations are 99% in air, temperature 36.9°C.

      A set of blood results reveal:
      Hb 112g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 56 µmol/l Platelets 240 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 360 u/l WBC 8.5 109/l Urea 4.8 mmol/l ALT 86 u/l Neuts 5.9 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l γGT 210 u/l Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l Albumin 35 g/l

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which commonly causes itching in the third trimester. This condition is characterized by elevated liver function tests (LFTs), particularly alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with a lesser increase in alanine transaminase (ALT). Patients may also experience jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and steatorrhea. Treatment often involves ursodeoxycholic acid. Biliary colic is unlikely due to the absence of abdominal pain. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare and presents with a hepatic picture on LFTs, along with nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and potential encephalopathy. HELLP syndrome is characterized by haemolytic anaemia and low platelets, which are not present in this case. Pre-eclampsia is also unlikely as the patient does not have hypertension or other related symptoms, although late pre-eclampsia may cause hepatic derangement on LFTs.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively managing her epilepsy with carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily. She is expecting a baby girl soon and is eager to breastfeed. What guidance should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No changes required

      Explanation:

      There is no need to increase the dose of medication as the patient’s epilepsy is well controlled on the current regimen. Switching from carbamazepine to lamotrigine is also unnecessary and not safer.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.

      Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.

      Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.

      An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.

      Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.

      Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she has recently discovered she is pregnant. She is overjoyed and eager to proceed with the pregnancy. Currently, she is 6 weeks pregnant and feels fine without symptoms. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Her urine dip is negative. She has heard that taking vitamin D and folic acid supplements can increase her chances of having a healthy pregnancy. What is the most advisable regimen for her in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D 400IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are obese (with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m²) should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that all pregnant women take 400 IU of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, folic acid should be taken daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, with the dosage depending on the presence of risk factors for neural tube defects such as spina bifida. If there are no risk factors, the dose is 400 micrograms daily, but if risk factors are present, the dose should be increased to 5 mg daily. As maternal obesity is a risk factor for neural tube defects, pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m² should take the higher dose of folic acid.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a primary infection with genital herpes at 24 weeks’ gestation, which was treated with acyclovir. She has attended clinic to discuss birth and management options.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: acyclovir daily from 36 weeks and expectant delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex type 1 or 2 and can harm newborns, leading to neonatal herpes. Pregnant women who contract herpes and remain untreated have a higher risk of premature delivery and membrane rupture. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly treat women with herpes simplex infection. acyclovir is a safe treatment option, which speeds up the healing process and suppresses viral shedding. Women with primary herpes infection in the first and second trimesters should be treated with oral acyclovir and offered treatment-dose acyclovir from the 36th week of gestation until delivery to prevent recurrence and reduce the risk of neonatal herpes. Expectant delivery is acceptable in these cases. Women who acquire herpes in the third trimester should be treated with acyclovir until delivery and offered an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission. Women who have acquired a primary genital herpes infection in the first and second trimesters that was treated should be offered acyclovir from 36 weeks onwards to reduce the risk of recurrence, lesion eruption, and viral shedding. Women with primary herpes simplex virus infection in labor who opt for vaginal delivery should receive intravenous acyclovir infusion to reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection. Invasive procedures should be avoided in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes and foetal macrosomia. Despite having a body mass index of 34 kg/m2, she is in good health.

      Her test results are as follows:
      - Fasting glucose: 8.5 mmol/L (<5.6 mmol/L)
      - 2 hour glucose: 12.8 mmol/L (<7.8 mmol/L)

      What is the recommended course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin plus or minus metformin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate treatment with insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated. For women with a fasting glucose level below 7 mmol/l at diagnosis, lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise should be recommended. If blood glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks using lifestyle modifications, metformin may be prescribed. Glibenclamide can be considered for women who do not reach their blood glucose targets with metformin or who refuse insulin therapy. Pioglitazone should be avoided during pregnancy as animal studies have shown it to be harmful.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel

      Explanation:

      If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should be recognized as a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing renal disease

      Explanation:

      Identify the following as potential risk factors:
      – Being 40 years old or older
      – Never having given birth
      – Having a pregnancy interval of over 10 years
      – Having a family history of pre-eclampsia
      – Having previously experienced pre-eclampsia
      – Having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m^2 or higher
      – Having pre-existing vascular disease, such as hypertension.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and seeks guidance on how to have a healthy pregnancy. She is in good health, takes folic acid, and smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      You recognize the importance of quitting smoking for the well-being of the pregnancy and employ motivational interviewing techniques to address her smoking.

      What is the initial step in this process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Establish rapport and find out whether she wants to change

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Motivational Interviewing in Smoking Cessation during Pregnancy

      Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered approach that aims to elicit and strengthen the patient’s own motivation and commitment to change. When it comes to smoking cessation during pregnancy, there are several best practices to follow.

      Firstly, it is important to establish rapport and assess the patient’s readiness to discuss behavior change. This involves determining which stage of change the patient is at and working accordingly from there.

      Next, it is important to assess the patient’s perceived difficulties and barriers to change, often using a numerical scale. However, this should not be done as the first step.

      Explaining and advising why smoking is harmful in pregnancy should also not be the first step. Instead, it is best to find out what the patient understands about the risks of smoking in pregnancy and then evoke the patient’s own motivations for change, if present.

      It is important to avoid trying to break down any resistance shown by the patient. Instead, a therapeutic relationship resembling a partnership or team should be used as the cornerstone from which changes can be explored or pursued.

      Finally, using a numerical scale to assess the patient’s confidence and willingness to quit smoking is an important step, but should not be done in the first instance. By following these best practices, healthcare providers can effectively use motivational interviewing to support smoking cessation during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion

      Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:

      Trophoblastic Disease
      This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.

      Ectopic Pregnancy
      This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.

      Threatened Miscarriage
      This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.

      Confirmed Miscarriage
      After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.

      Septic Abortion
      This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.

      While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.

      Explanation:

      It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
      Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’

      Explanation:

      Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests

      Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.

      If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.

      It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. Upon staging, it was found that she has a small malignant tumour that is only visible under a microscope and measures 6mm in width. The depth of the tumour is 2.5mm, and there is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases, classifying her disease as stage IA1. She expresses a desire to preserve her fertility as she has not yet started a family.

      What treatment option would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy and close follow-up

      Explanation:

      If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer wants to maintain her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins and close follow-up may be considered as the best option. Hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance would not preserve fertility. Radical trachelectomy, which involves removing the cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding tissues, and checking for cancer spread in the pelvis, is an option for IA2 tumors that also preserves fertility.

      Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging

      Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.

      The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.

      Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.

      The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking advice on her desire to conceive. The patient has well-managed blood sugar levels and is currently taking metformin and gliclazide. What recommendations should you provide regarding potential medication adjustments during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient may continue on metformin but gliclazide must be stopped

      Explanation:

      The patient can still take metformin but should discontinue gliclazide. When managing type 2 diabetes during pregnancy, metformin can be used alone or with insulin for women with pre-existing diabetes. Although the patient may need to switch to insulin, it is not always necessary. However, both liraglutide and gliclazide are not safe to use during pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner three weeks after giving birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner three weeks after giving birth. She breastfeeds her baby mostly but uses formula milk when she is out in public as she feels uncomfortable breastfeeding in front of others. She wants to talk about contraception. She is the sole caregiver for her newborn during the day and finds it challenging to manage her sleep schedule and daily routine. There are no other significant medical histories.
      What are the most feasible contraceptive options for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone implant

      Explanation:

      When caring for a newborn, it can be difficult for a mother to remember to take the progesterone-only pill at the same time every day. Long-acting reversible contraception options, such as the progesterone implant, copper coil, and levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, are recommended. The progesterone implant is safe for breastfeeding women and can last for up to three years. The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system can be used after four weeks postpartum, but insertion should be avoided in the first few weeks due to the risk of perforation. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended until six weeks postpartum due to the increased risk of thromboembolism. The copper coil can be considered after four weeks postpartum, and the progesterone-only pill can be used from the first day postpartum, but it must be taken at the same time every day. A long-acting progesterone contraceptive device may be more suitable for a mother who finds it difficult to take medication at the same time every day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed through the first stage without any complications. However, the midwife has observed CTG abnormalities and palpated the umbilical cord. The obstetric registrar is called and upon checking the CTG, variable decelerations are noted. What is the primary course of action for addressing the cause of these decelerations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part

      Explanation:

      The situation involves cord prolapse leading to cord compression and variable decelerations on the CTG. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guidelines No.50) for managing cord prolapse. The guidelines recommend elevating the presenting part either manually or by filling the urinary bladder to prevent cord compression. If fetal heart rate anomalies persist despite using mechanical methods to prevent compression, tocolysis (such as terbutaline) can be considered while preparing for a caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cooked liver

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.

      Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.

      Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.

      Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for a routine antenatal visit. She is 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. On examination, she is well and has a symphysis fundal height of 33 cm. Her blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg and she has 2++ protein in the urine.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension in Pregnancy

      Hypertension in pregnancy can be a serious condition that requires urgent assessment and management. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by both hypertension and proteinuria, is a common diagnosis. Early detection and management can prevent complications.

      Normal blood pressure during pregnancy typically drops slightly in the first and second trimesters and rises back to pre-pregnancy levels in the third trimester. However, some patients may have chronic hypertension that was previously undiagnosed.

      White-coat hypertension, where blood pressure is elevated in a clinical setting but normal at home, should be ruled out before a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made. This type of hypertension occurs after week 20 of pregnancy but without proteinuria. Regular screening for proteinuria is necessary in these cases.

      In cases of mild to moderate hypertension, patients may be admitted to the hospital and monitored or started on oral labetalol. Severe hypertension requires immediate hospitalization and treatment. Overall, understanding hypertension in pregnancy is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant visits her local antenatal unit...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant visits her local antenatal unit for a midwife check-up. She has been diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and is taking ursodeoxycholic acid. Additionally, she is being treated with lamotrigine for epilepsy. This is her first pregnancy, and she has not experienced any previous miscarriages. During her appointment, she expresses concern about her step-sister's recent stillbirth, as her step-sister has already had two prior stillbirths. Based on her medical history, which factor puts her at the highest risk for a similar outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is known to increase the risk of stillbirth, which is why doctors usually recommend inducing labor at 37-38 weeks of gestation. Although some studies suggest that this may no longer be the case, the general consensus is that the risk of stillbirth is still relatively high. Therefore, early induction of labor is still advised.

      While advanced maternal age is a risk factor for stillbirth, being 34 years old is not considered to be in the category of older maternal age, which is defined as 35 years old or older.

      Although there may be a genetic component to stillbirths, having a step-sister with a history of stillbirth does not constitute a family history of the condition. This is because step-siblings are not biologically related, but rather connected through marriage.

      Lamotrigine is considered the safest anti-epileptic medication to use during pregnancy, and there is no evidence to suggest that it increases the risk of stillbirth.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman with essential hypertension, who is taking once-daily ramipril, attends her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with essential hypertension, who is taking once-daily ramipril, attends her eight-week antenatal appointment. She has a history of well-controlled asthma and depression, but is not currently on any antidepressants. There are no other significant medical issues. Her blood pressure reading in the clinic today is 145/89 mmHg. What is the appropriate management of her hypertension during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for pre-existing hypertension in pregnancy

      Explanation: Pre-existing hypertension in pregnancy requires careful management to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. When treating hypertension in pregnancy, it is important to consider the potential adverse effects of medication on fetal development.

      One option is to discontinue antihypertensive treatment as blood pressure drops in the first trimester. However, this is not recommended as high blood pressure in pregnancy can have significant implications.

      Continuing ramipril at the current dose or increasing the dose is not recommended as ACE inhibitors have been associated with fetal malformations. NICE guidelines suggest stopping ACE inhibitors and ARBs as soon as the patient knows she is pregnant or at the first opportunity such as the booking visit.

      The first-line treatment for hypertension in pregnancy is labetalol, but it should be avoided in patients with asthma. Second-line medications include nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, and methyldopa. Methyldopa should be avoided in patients with a history of depression. Therefore, the safest choice in this scenario is nifedipine. It is important to prescribe nifedipine by brand name and continue with the same brand throughout the course of treatment, provided there are no side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with...

    Incorrect

    • A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with complaints of reduced fetal movements (RFM). She reports that she has not felt her baby move for the past 10 hours. There is no history of vaginal bleeding or pain. The midwife is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat using the handheld Doppler. What further investigations would be carried out to assess the reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation of her first pregnancy visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation of her first pregnancy visits her doctor complaining of tremors after starting a medication for hyperemesis gravidarum. During the examination, the patient displays a resting tremor in her right hand and heightened tone in her upper limbs. What medication is the patient likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is an option for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, but should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects. A resting tremor and increased upper limb tone in a pregnant woman after starting medication for hyperemesis gravidarum may indicate extrapyramidal effects from metoclopramide. Cyclizine, ondansetron, and prednisolone are not likely to cause extrapyramidal effects, but may have other side effects and are not first-line treatments for hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery. The delivery was uncomplicated and she is eager to be discharged. She has initiated breastfeeding and is forming a strong attachment with her newborn.
      When inquired about birth control, she reports that she previously used the progesterone-only pill and wishes to resume this method. What is the soonest she can restart this contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill can be taken by postpartum women (both breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) at any time after delivery. It is categorized as UKMEC 1, meaning there are no restrictions on its use. Women can start taking it immediately if they choose to do so, and there is no need to wait for three weeks before starting. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) can be taken as UKMEC 2 after three weeks in non-breastfeeding women, and after six weeks in breastfeeding women or as UKMEC 1 in non-breastfeeding women. In breastfeeding women, the COCP can be taken as UKMEC 1 after six months. The progesterone-only pill is safe for breastfeeding women as it has minimal transfer into breast milk, and there is no harm to the baby.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the antenatal clinic to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. She has a history of delivering her previous pregnancies through vaginal and elective caesarean section, respectively. What is the definite reason for not allowing vaginal delivery after a previous caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertical (classic) caesarean scar

      Explanation:

      VBAC is not recommended for patients who have had previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, experienced uterine rupture in the past, or have other contraindications to vaginal birth such as placenta praevia. However, women who have had two or more previous caesarean sections may still be considered for VBAC. The remaining options in this question do not necessarily rule out VBAC.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed