-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?
Your Answer: Measure serum CA125 level
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)
A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.
Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.
Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.
Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms of diarrhea. He has been experiencing profuse watery diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain for the past week. He has been going to the toilet approximately 10 times a day and occasionally feels nauseated, but has not vomited. He has lost around 5 kg in weight due to this illness. On examination, he has a temperature of 37.7°C and appears slightly dehydrated. There is some slight tenderness on abdominal examination, but no specific abnormalities are detected. PR examination reveals watery, brown feces. What investigation would be the most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Stool microscopy and culture
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Giardiasis in Traveller’s Diarrhoea
Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common condition that can occur when travelling to different parts of the world. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from giardiasis, which is caused by a parasite that can be found in contaminated water or food. The best way to diagnose giardiasis is through microscopic examination of the faeces, where cysts may be seen. However, in some cases, chronic disease may occur, and cysts may not be found in the faeces. In such cases, a duodenal aspirate or biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.
The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole, which is an antibiotic that is effective against the parasite.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a work-up of a suspected cholangiocarcinoma. He underwent a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). After this, he complains of chills, nausea, vomiting and upper-right abdominal pain. He has also spiked a fever of 38.9 °C.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Correct Answer: Liver abscess
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abdominal Pain and Infective Symptoms
A liver abscess is the most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with fever, abdominal pain, chills, nausea, and vomiting after undergoing an MRCP. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit characteristic symptoms such as multiorgan failure, shock, widespread bleeding, or clots. Fatty-liver disease could cause similar symptoms but would not have an acute onset or infective symptoms. Hepatitis is a possibility but would typically present with additional symptoms such as dark urine and pale stools. Liver metastases are unlikely to have a sudden onset and infective symptoms. While it is a possibility, a liver abscess is the most likely diagnosis, especially given the patient’s recent MRCP and suspected cholangiocarcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. What physical examination finding is most indicative of a possible diagnosis of appendicitis?
Your Answer: Tenderness over McBurney’s point
Explanation:Common Abdominal Exam Findings and Their Significance
Abdominal exams are an important part of diagnosing various medical conditions. Here are some common findings and their significance:
Tenderness over McBurney’s point: This is a sign of possible appendicitis. McBurney’s point is located a third of the way from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.
Grey–Turner’s sign: Flank bruising is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.
Murphy’s sign: This suggests cholecystitis. The examiner places their hand below the right costal margin and the tender gallbladder moves inferiorly on inhalation, causing the patient to catch their breath.
Tinkling bowel sounds: High-pitched, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds are typically associated with mechanical bowel obstruction.
Absent bowel sounds: This is suggestive of paralytic ileus, which most commonly occurs after abdominal surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis
Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has lasted for 2 weeks. She mentions passing mucous and blood rectally and reports feeling generally unwell. During the examination, the GP observes aphthous ulceration in her mouth and suspects a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The GP decides to refer the patient to a gastroenterology consultant.
What is the recommended first-line medication for patients with mild to moderate UC?Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the rectum and may spread to the colon. The main symptom is bloody diarrhea, and the disease follows a relapsing and remitting course. The goal of UC management is to treat acute relapses, prevent relapses, and detect cancers early.
Mesalazine is an effective first-line treatment for mild to moderate UC, which involves enemas and oral medication. For moderately active cases, oral aminosalicylates, topical aminosalicylates, and corticosteroids are used. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator that is rarely used to induce remission but is used to keep patients in remission. Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid used for severe cases. Infliximab is an anti-tumor necrosis factor biologic used for moderate to severe cases that are refractory to standard treatment. Methotrexate is an alternative immunomodulator for patients who cannot tolerate azathioprine. It is important to discuss adequate contraception with patients on methotrexate due to its teratogenicity.
Understanding Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer: Somatostatin antagonist
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for enteral feeding. What is the primary method to verify the NG tube's secure placement before starting feeding?
Your Answer: Aspirate 10 ml and check the pH
Explanation:Methods for Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric Tubes
Nasogastric (NG) tubes are commonly used in medical settings to administer medication, nutrition, or to remove stomach contents. However, incorrect placement of an NG tube can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important to confirm correct placement before using the tube. Here are some methods for confirming correct placement:
1. Aspirate and check pH: Aspirate 10 ml of fluid from the NG tube and test the pH. If the pH is less than 5.5, the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.
2. Visual inspection: Do not rely on visual inspection of the aspirate to confirm correct placement, as bronchial secretions can be similar in appearance to stomach contents.
3. Insert air and auscultate: Injecting 10-20 ml of air can help obtain a gastric aspirate, but auscultation to confirm placement is an outdated and unreliable technique.
4. Chest X-ray: If no aspirate can be obtained or the pH level is higher than 5.5, a chest X-ray can be used to confirm correct placement. However, this should not be the first-line investigation.
5. Abdominal X-ray: An abdominal X-ray is not helpful in determining correct placement of an NG tube, as it does not show the lungs.
By using these methods, healthcare professionals can ensure that NG tubes are correctly placed and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer: Gluten-free diet
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine and vitamin supplementation for the last 3 years. He had ulcerative colitis which was in remission, and colonoscopic surveillance had not shown any dysplastic changes. His only significant history was two episodes of cholangitis for which he had to be hospitalised in the past year. On examination, he was mildly icteric with a body weight of 52 kg. At present, he had no complaints, except fatigue.
What is the next best treatment option?Your Answer: Steroids
Correct Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:The only definitive treatment for advanced hepatic disease in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT). Patients with intractable pruritus and recurrent bacterial cholangitis are specifically indicated for transplant. Although there is a 25-30% recurrence rate in 5 years, outcomes following transplant are good, with an 80-90% 5-year survival rate. PSC has become the second most common reason for liver transplantation in the United Kingdom. Other treatments such as steroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, and pentoxifylline have not been found to be useful. Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole can be used to treat bacterial ascending cholangitis, but it will not alter the natural course of the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent
Introduction:
A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.Possible Causes:
1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.
3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.
4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.
5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome diarrhoea. She reports that she has had diarrhoea daily and it has a strong, malodorous smell. The unintentional weight loss is 7 kg over the last year and she has had a general decrease in energy.
Which preparation would be most suitable to decrease her diarrhoea?Your Answer: Loperamide
Correct Answer: Pancreatin
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Medications and Their Uses
Pancreatin is a mixture of digestive enzymes that aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. It is used in conditions where there is a lack of pancreatic enzyme production, such as cystic fibrosis and chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatin should be taken with meals and may cause side-effects such as nausea and hypersensitivity.
Co-phenotrope is a combination drug that controls the consistency of faeces following ileostomy or colostomy formation and in acute diarrhoea. It is composed of diphenoxylate and atropine and may cause side-effects such as abdominal pain and lethargy.
Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its reabsorption. It is used in conditions such as hypercholesterolaemia and primary biliary cholangitis. Side-effects may include constipation and nausea.
Loperamide is an antimotility agent used in acute diarrhoea. It may cause side-effects such as constipation and nausea.
Psyllium, also known as ispaghula, is a bulk-forming laxative that aids in normal bowel elimination. It is mainly used as a laxative but may also be used to treat mild diarrhoea.
Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Medications
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman, with a body mass index of 30, presents to the Emergency Department with colicky right upper quadrant pain and shoulder discomfort. She has also suffered two episodes of nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 110/70, pulse rate 110 and respiratory rate 20. There is pain on inspiration and an increase in pain when palpating the right upper quadrant. The patient is confirmed as having cholecystitis due to impaction of a gallstone in the gallbladder neck. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is recommended, and the patient is consented for surgery. The dissection begins by incising peritoneum along the edge of the gallbladder on both sides to open up the cystohepatic triangle of calot.
What are the borders of this triangle?Your Answer: Hepatic duct medially, liver superiorly, cystic artery inferiorly
Correct Answer: Hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, inferior edge of liver superiorly
Explanation:The Triangle of Calot: An Important Landmark in Cholecystectomy
The triangle of Calot is a crucial anatomical landmark in cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder. It is a triangular space whose boundaries include the common hepatic duct medially, the cystic duct laterally, and the inferior edge of the liver superiorly. During the procedure, this space is dissected to identify the cystic artery and cystic duct before ligation and division. It is important to note that the gallbladder is not part of the triangle of Calot, and the cystic duct is the lateral border, not the inferior border. The hepatic duct is medial in the triangle of Calot, and the inferior edge of the liver is the upper border of the hepatocystic triangle. The bile duct is not part of the triangle of Calot. Understanding the boundaries of the triangle of Calot is essential for a successful cholecystectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old professional who is working long hours develops intermittent periods of abdominal pain and bloating. She also notices a change in bowel habit and finds that going to the restroom helps to relieve her abdominal pain.
Which of the following drug treatments may help in the treatment of her colic and bloating symptoms?Your Answer: Loperamide
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional bowel disorder that affects mostly young adults, with women being more commonly affected than men. The diagnosis of IBS can be established using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort for at least one day per week in the last three months, along with two or more of the following: improvement with defecation, onset associated with a change in frequency of stool, or onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of the stool.
There are several treatment options available for IBS, depending on the predominant symptoms. Mebeverine, an antispasmodic, can be used to relieve colicky abdominal pain. Loperamide can be useful for patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D), while osmotic laxatives such as macrogols are preferred for constipation-predominant IBS (IBS-C). Cimetidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, can help with acid reflux symptoms, but is unlikely to help with colic or bloating. Metoclopramide, a D2 dopamine receptor antagonist, is used as an antiemetic and prokinetic, but is not effective for colic and bloating symptoms.
In summary, treatment options for IBS depend on the predominant symptoms and can include antispasmodics, laxatives, and acid reflux medications. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying down. He reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting. The nursing staff notes that he has a rapid heart rate and a fever of 38.1°C. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and there is significant guarding. Bruising is present around his belly button. The patient admits to drinking six cans of strong beer daily and smoking two packs of cigarettes per day. He recalls being hospitalized two years ago for vomiting blood but cannot remember the treatment he received. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. What is the most likely cause of the man's symptoms and presentation?
Your Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain, nausea, and periumbilical bruising
The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also cause flank bruising. Given his alcohol consumption, coagulopathy is a possible contributing factor. Hepatic cirrhosis could explain coagulopathy, but not the rapid onset of abdominal pain or the absence of ecchymosis elsewhere. A ruptured duodenal ulcer or bleeding oesophageal varices are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding this time. A pancreatic abscess is a potential complication of pancreatitis, but would typically have a longer onset and more systemic symptoms. Therefore, the differential diagnosis includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, possibly related to coagulopathy from alcohol use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman from Vietnam presents with abdominal swelling. She has no history of blood transfusion or jaundice in the past and is in a stable relationship with two children. Upon admission, she was found to be icteric. During the investigation, she experienced a bout of haematemesis and was admitted to the High Dependency Unit.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from chronic liver disease and portal hypertension, possibly caused by a hepatitis B infection. This is common in regions such as sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, where up to 10% of adults may be chronically infected. Acute paracetamol overdose can also cause liver failure, but it does not typically present with haematemesis. Mushroom poisoning can be deadly and cause liver damage, but it is not a cause of chronic liver disease. Hepatitis C is another cause of liver cirrhosis, but it is more common in other regions such as Egypt. Haemochromatosis is a rare autosomal recessive disease that can present with cirrhosis and other symptoms, but it is less likely in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman presents with unintentional weight loss and blood stained diarrhoea. The blood is fresh, and mucous is often present in the stool. On examination, she has oral ulcers, erythema nodosum and conjunctivitis. The mucosa looks abnormal and multiple biopsies are taken. Ulcerative colitis is suspected.
Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis over Crohn’s disease?Your Answer: Non-caseating granulomata
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:When differentiating between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, it is important to note that crypt abscesses are typical for ulcerative colitis, while other options are more commonly found in Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is the most common form of inflammatory bowel disease, with inflammation starting in the rectum and spreading upwards in a contiguous fashion. Patients typically experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include seronegative arthropathy and pyoderma gangrenosum. Barium enema and colonoscopy are used to diagnose ulcerative colitis, with the latter revealing diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only. Complications of long-term ulcerative colitis include large bowel adenocarcinoma, toxic megacolon, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. In contrast, Crohn’s disease usually presents with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss. Barium enema and colonoscopy reveal multiple ulcers and bowel wall thickening, with the microscopic appearance showing a mixed acute and chronic transmural inflammatory infiltrate with non-caseating granulomas. Terminal ileum involvement is typical for Crohn’s disease, while stricturing and fistula formation are common complications due to its transmural inflammatory nature. Overall, while both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are systemic illnesses, they have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and diagnostic features.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 36-year-old man complained of abdominal pain and weight loss. Upon investigation, he was diagnosed with coeliac disease. The biopsy of his small intestine revealed blunting of villi with crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes ++. What is the stage of his disease?
Your Answer: III
Explanation:The Marsh Criteria: A Morphological Classification of Coeliac Disease Biopsy
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine, causing damage to the lining and leading to malabsorption of nutrients. The Marsh criteria is a morphological classification system used to diagnose coeliac disease through intestinal biopsy.
The classification system consists of four stages, with stage 0 indicating a normal biopsy and stage IV indicating total villous atrophy. In between, stages I-III show varying degrees of damage to the duodenal villi, intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypts.
Recently, the Marsh-Oberhuber classification was introduced, which subdivides stage III into three classes based on the degree of villous atrophy. Stage IV has been eliminated from this modified version.
In coeliac disease and other inflammatory conditions, such as milk protein allergy, the pattern of intraepithelial lymphocytes may be reversed. In stage I disease, only increased intraepithelial lymphocytes would be seen on biopsy, while stage 0 would appear normal. Class II disease would show normal duodenal villi, and stage IV would be associated with crypt atrophy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 59-year-old librarian is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing haematemesis. The patient has been complaining of epigastric discomfort for the past few weeks and has been self-medicating with over-the-counter antacids. This morning, the patient continued to experience the discomfort and suddenly vomited about a cup of fresh blood. The patient is a non-smoker but consumes approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He is currently taking atorvastatin for high cholesterol but has no other significant medical history. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he takes 75 mg aspirin daily, as he once read in the newspaper that it would be beneficial for his long-term cardiac health. What is the mechanism by which aspirin damages the gastric mucosa?
Your Answer: Reduced surface mucous secretion
Explanation:Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
Aspirin is a commonly used medication for pain relief and anti-inflammatory purposes. However, it can have adverse effects on the gastric mucosal lining. One of the effects of aspirin is the reduction of surface mucous secretion, which normally protects the gastric mucosal lining. This is due to the inhibition of PGE2 production. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding and peptic ulceration, patients taking aspirin should consider taking a proton pump inhibitor alongside it.
Aspirin has no effect on gastric motility, but it causes a reduction in PGI2, resulting in reduced blood flow to the gastric lining and mucosal ischaemia. This prevents the elimination of acid that has diffused into the submucosa. Aspirin also causes decreased surface bicarbonate secretion and increased acid production from gastric parietal cells, as prostaglandins normally inhibit acid secretion.
It is important to note that the risk factors for aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced injury include advanced age, history of peptic ulcer disease, concomitant use of glucocorticoids, high dose of NSAIDs, multiple NSAIDs, and concomitant use of clopidogrel or anticoagulants. Therefore, patients should be cautious when taking aspirin and consult with their healthcare provider if they have any concerns.
The Adverse Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents with a history of melaena on three separate occasions in the past three years. She reports having had many tests, including barium enemas, flexible sigmoidoscopies, and oesophagogastroduodenoscopies, which were all normal.
One year ago she required two units of blood to raise her haematocrit from 24% to 30%. She has been taking iron, 300 mg orally BD, since then.
The patient has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and heart failure treated with digoxin, enalapril, furosemide, and metoprolol. She does not have chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her body mass index is 32, her pulse is 88 per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg supine and 118/82 mm Hg standing. The conjunctivae are pale. A ventricular gallop is heard. There are bruits over both femoral arteries.
Rectal examination reveals dark brown stool that is positive for occult blood. Other findings of the physical examination are normal.
Barium enema shows a few diverticula scattered throughout the descending and transverse colon.
Colonoscopy shows angiodysplasia of the caecum but no bleeding is seen.
Technetium (99mTc) red cell scan of the colon is negative.
Haemoglobin is 105 g/L (115-165) and her haematocrit is 30% (36-47).
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this time?Your Answer: Mesenteric angiography
Correct Answer: Continued observation
Explanation:Angiodysplasia
Angiodysplasia is a condition where previously healthy blood vessels degenerate, commonly found in the caecum and proximal ascending colon. The majority of angiodysplasias, around 77%, are located in these areas. Symptoms of angiodysplasia include maroon-coloured stool, melaena, haematochezia, and haematemesis. Bleeding is usually low-grade, but in some cases, around 15%, it can be massive. However, bleeding stops spontaneously in over 90% of cases.
Radionuclide scanning using technetium Tc99 labelled red blood cells can help detect and locate active bleeding from angiodysplasia, even at low rates of 0.1 ml/min. However, the intermittent nature of bleeding in angiodysplasia limits the usefulness of this method. For patients who are haemodynamically stable, a conservative approach is recommended as most bleeding angiodysplasias will stop on their own. Treatment is usually not necessary for asymptomatic patients who incidentally discover they have angiodysplasias.
Overall, angiodysplasia and its symptoms is important for early detection and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.
Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage
Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations
Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain, fever, and jaundice requiring recurrent hospital admissions. During her last admission, she underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has a history of ulcerative colitis for the past 15 years.
Investigations revealed elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (100 U/L), serum alkaline phosphatase (383 U/L), and serum total bilirubin (45 μmol/L). However, her serum IgG, IgA, and IgM levels were normal, and serology for hepatitis B and C was negative. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed dilated intrahepatic ducts and a common bile duct of 6 mm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Choledocholithiasis
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Cholangitis, PSC, and Other Related Conditions
Cholangitis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of biliary pain, fever, and jaundice. On the other hand, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a progressive disease that affects the bile ducts, either intrahepatic or extrahepatic, or both. The cause of PSC is unknown, but it is characterized by a disproportionate elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. Patients with PSC are prone to repeated episodes of acute cholangitis, which require hospitalization. Up to 90% of patients with PSC have underlying inflammatory bowel disease, usually ulcerative colitis. Imaging studies, such as MRCP, typically show multifocal strictures in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. The later course of PSC is characterized by secondary biliary cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and liver failure. Patients with PSC are also at higher risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma.
Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a marked elevation in transaminitis, the presence of autoantibodies, and elevated serum IgG. Choledocholithiasis, another related condition, is usually diagnosed by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen, which shows a dilated common bile duct (larger than 6 mm) and stones in the bile duct. Meanwhile, primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is unlikely to cause recurrent episodes of cholangitis. Unlike PSC, PBC does not affect extrahepatic bile ducts. Finally, viral hepatitis is unlikely in the absence of positive serology. these conditions and their characteristics is crucial in providing proper diagnosis and treatment to patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 2-month history of pain and difficulty swallowing when eating solid foods and now also has trouble swallowing liquids. He states that his trousers now feel looser around his waist and he no longer looks forward to his meals. His past medical history is significant for reflux disease for which he takes over-the-counter Gaviscon. He has a 20-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 15 pints of beer per week. His family medical history is unremarkable.
His observations are shown below:
Temperature 36.4°C
Blood pressure 155/69 mmHg
Heart rate 66 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 13 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 99% (room air)
Physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer: Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to upper gastrointestinal surgeon
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient with Dysphagia and ‘Alarm’ Symptoms
When a patient presents with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, and swallowing difficulties, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is necessary. In the case of a patient with a significant smoking history, male sex, and alcohol intake, there is a high suspicion for oesophageal cancer, and an immediate referral to an upper gastrointestinal surgeon is required under the 2-week-wait rule.
Continuing treatment with over-the-counter medications like Gaviscon would be inappropriate in this case, as would histamine-2 receptor antagonist therapy. Oesophageal manometry would only be indicated if the patient had an oesophageal motility disorder. Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy can be initiated in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease, but it would not be appropriate as a sole treatment option for a patient with clinical manifestations concerning for oesophageal carcinoma.
In summary, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is crucial for patients with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms, and appropriate management should be tailored to the individual patient’s clinical presentation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh red blood with his stool. He also reports a small amount of mucous discharge with his stool and feeling pruritic and sore around his anus for the past couple of days. The patient denies any pain but has been more constipated than usual over the past few months. He denies any recent weight loss and has a BMI of approximately 35. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He recently completed a 7-day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection 5 days ago. What is the most likely cause of his rectal bleeding?
Your Answer: Anal fissure
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding: Haemorrhoids, Colon Cancer, Diverticulitis, Anal Fissure, and Ulcerative Colitis
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for haemorrhoids, which are the most likely cause of his symptoms. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, anal fissure, and ulcerative colitis.
Haemorrhoids are caused by increased pressure in the blood vessels around the anus, which can be exacerbated by obesity, chronic constipation, and coughing. Symptoms include fresh red blood and mucous after passing stool, a pruritic anus, and soreness around the anus.
Colon cancer is less likely in this case, as it typically presents with a change in bowel habit and blood in the stool, but not with a pruritic, sore anus. However, if there is no evidence of haemorrhoids on examination, colonoscopy may be recommended to rule out cancer.
Diverticulitis is characterised by passing fresh, red blood per rectum, as well as nausea and vomiting, pyrexia, and abdominal pain.
Anal fissure also involves the passage of small amounts of fresh red blood with stools, but is associated with sharp anal pain when stools are passed.
Ulcerative colitis can be associated with passage of blood and mucous with stools, as well as weight loss, diarrhoea, anaemia, and fatigue. The patient has some risk factors for ulcerative colitis, which has two peak ages for diagnosis: 15-35 and 50-70 years old.
In summary, while haemorrhoids are the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and perform appropriate testing to rule out more serious conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
Parameter Result
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options
Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 2-year history of gastroenterological complaints. The patient reports abdominal bloating, especially after meals and in the evenings, and alternating symptoms of diarrhoea and constipation. She also has a history of anxiety and is currently very busy at work – she feels this is also having an impact on her symptoms, as her symptoms tend to settle when she is on leave.
Which one of the following features in the clinical history would point towards a likely organic cause of abdominal pain (ie non-functional) diagnosis?Your Answer: Unexplained weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a complex condition that can manifest in various ways. Some common symptoms include tenesmus, abdominal bloating, mucous per rectum, relief of symptoms on defecation, lethargy, backache, and generalised symptoms. However, it’s important to note that these symptoms alone do not necessarily indicate an organic cause of abdominal pain.
On the other hand, there are red flag symptoms that may suggest an underlying condition other than IBS. These include unintentional and unexplained weight loss, rectal bleeding, a family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and a change in bowel habit lasting for more than six weeks, especially in people over 60 years old.
It’s crucial to understand the difference between IBS symptoms and red flag symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of the red flag symptoms, it’s essential to seek medical attention promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Whipple's disease
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.
During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Biopsy of the lesion
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control
Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)