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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner for follow-up 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner for follow-up 1 week after being attacked and raped by an acquaintance on her university campus. Immediately after the episode, she was seen in the Emergency Department for her injuries and evidence gathering, interviewed by the police and discharged home. Today she reports difficulty sleeping and flashbacks about the event. She has had difficulty concentrating at university and feels anxious that ‘something bad’ might happen to her again.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Acute Stress Disorder, Adjustment Disorder, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, and Panic Disorder

      Acute Stress Disorder: This disorder is characterized by persistently heightened awareness, difficulty sleeping, flashbacks, and interference of thoughts with daily activities. It occurs within 1 month of a life-threatening or extremely traumatic event.

      Adjustment Disorder: To diagnose this disorder, there must be an identifiable stressor, a maladaptive response to the stressor that interferes with activities, symptom onset within 3 months of the stressor, and symptoms that do not meet criteria for any other psychiatric disorder. Symptoms typically last no longer than 6 months after removal of the stressor.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by pervasive, excessive worry about many different aspects of a person’s life such as finances, work, and family. It often manifests first with somatic symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty sleeping, irritability, and muscle tension.

      Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): If symptoms persist longer than 1 month, patients meet criteria for PTSD. The diagnostic differentiation between acute stress and PTSD is the duration of symptoms only.

      Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, nausea, choking, abdominal distress, and feelings of impending doom. Symptoms mimic those of extreme autonomic arousal, are abrupt in onset, and resolve quickly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round,...

    Correct

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 doctor in Psychiatry. During the ward round, you are asked to perform a mental state examination of a patient who has been on the ward for a month.
      In which part of the mental state examination would you report neologisms, pressure, or poverty?

      Your Answer: Speech

      Explanation:

      Assessing Mental State: Key Components to Consider

      When assessing a patient’s mental state, there are several key components to consider. These include speech rate, rhythm, and volume, as well as the presence of neologisms, which may indicate a thought disorder. Poverty of speech may suggest reduced speech content, often seen in depression, while pressure of speech may indicate an increased rate, often seen in mania.

      Insight is another important factor to consider, as it reflects the patient’s understanding of their condition and their willingness to accept treatment. Under the heading of Appearance and behaviour, it is important to note the patient’s level of self-care, rapport, and any non-verbal cues. Abnormal movements and level of motor activity should also be observed.

      Mood and affect are subjective and objective measures of the patient’s emotional state. Mood refers to the patient’s internal experience, while affect refers to the external manifestation of that emotion. Thought content should also be assessed, including any preoccupations, obsessions, overvalued ideas, ideas of reference, delusions, or suicidal thoughts. By considering these key components, clinicians can gain a comprehensive understanding of a patient’s mental state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of headaches, nausea, and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of headaches, nausea, and anxiety that have been ongoing for the past year. He has sought medical attention from various healthcare providers and was prescribed codeine pain relief, which he has now finished. Upon examination, there are no notable findings, and private investigations including a CT and MRI of the head have come back normal. Despite being reassured multiple times, he remains convinced that he has a brain tumour and requests further testing and pain relief. His paternal grandfather died from a brain tumour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is hypochondriasis, also known as illness anxiety disorder. This is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of a serious underlying disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results and reassurance from healthcare providers. It is helpful to remember that hypochondriasis is worrying about cancer, as both words contain the letter C and cancer is an example of a serious underlying disease.

      Conversion disorder, factitious disorder, and malingering are all incorrect diagnoses for this patient. Conversion disorder involves functional neurological symptoms without clear cause, often traced back to a psychological trigger. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves intentionally producing physical or psychological problems to assume a sick role or deceive healthcare providers. Malingering involves fraudulently simulating or exaggerating symptoms for financial or other gains. None of these diagnoses fit the patient’s symptoms and concerns, as they are not consciously feigning symptoms, seeking material gain, or assuming a sick role. The patient is genuinely worried about a serious underlying condition being missed.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his friends. Upon examination, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he were a radio station, and that he hears voices commenting on his actions. The doctor observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the doctor notes that the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry posed to him.

      What term describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is when someone repeats the speech of another person, including any questions asked. This is often seen in individuals with schizophrenia, particularly catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by negative symptoms such as a lack of emotional expression, poverty of speech, and poor motivation. The patient in question exhibits two of Schneider’s first-rank symptoms: thought broadcasting and third-person auditory hallucinations, and is therefore diagnosable with schizophrenia. Copropraxia refers to the involuntary performance of obscene or forbidden gestures or inappropriate touching, while echopraxia involves the meaningless repetition or imitation of others’ movements. Finally, a neologism is a word that has been made up.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old Welsh Guard returning from operational duty overseas has been suffering from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old Welsh Guard returning from operational duty overseas has been suffering from nightmares and intrusive memories of his military experiences for the past 6 months. He avoids anything that reminds him of his tour of duty and is emotionally detached. He has trouble sleeping, concentrating, and is easily startled by loud noises. Additionally, he has been abusing alcohol. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Anxiety Disorders

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by a mix of anxiety and dissociative symptoms that persist for several months. Patients with PTSD often experience unintentional recollection, flashbacks, and nightmares of the traumatic event. They may also exhibit symptoms of chronic hyperarousal, such as sleep disruptions, irritability, and hypervigilance.

      Panic disorder with agoraphobia is diagnosed in patients who avoid situations that they believe may trigger a panic attack or where it would be dangerous or embarrassing to have one.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that typically subsides within a month and is most common in patients who use dissociation to separate the events from the associated painful emotions.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by a mental state of dread or fear and somatic manifestations, such as palpitations, churning stomach, and muscle tension. Patients with this disorder often have fears concerning many aspects of their personal security.

      Somatization disorder is a condition where patients seek medical attention for cryptic physical symptoms that are difficult to explain. Patients with this disorder complain of problems in at least four different organ systems, usually without clear physical cause. They often deny anxiety or psychic distress, except for distress about their physical condition.

      Overall, understanding the different types of anxiety disorders and their symptoms can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and enjoys gardening in his spare time. When he didn't show up for his weekly gardening club meeting, a friend went to his house. The friend noticed that the patient appeared disoriented and was speaking nonsensically, prompting them to call for medical assistance.
      What distinguishes delirium from dementia?

      Your Answer: Fluctuating level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      Dementia vs Delirium: Understanding the Differences

      Dementia and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive abilities and behavior. While they share some similarities, there are also important differences between them.

      Dementia is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that cause a progressive decline in cognition and/or behavior from previous levels of functioning. It is characterized by a slow, insidious progression and is rarely reversible. Memory loss, executive functioning problems, speech and language difficulties, social interaction loss, personality changes, and visuospatial problems are some of the areas of loss associated with dementia. Mobility and gait disturbances are also common.

      Delirium, on the other hand, is an acute confusional state characterized by a relatively rapid onset and variable, fluctuating progression. It may cause a global reduction in cognitive abilities but is usually reversible if the underlying cause is promptly identified. Common causes include sepsis, medications, metabolic derangement, and causes of raised intracranial pressure.

      While there are some similarities between dementia and delirium, there are also some differences. For example, dementia is never associated with a persistent fluctuating level of consciousness, which is a feature of delirium. Visual hallucinations are present in both delirium and dementia, particularly Lewy body dementia. Impaired memory and dysarthria are also present in both conditions, as is urinary incontinence.

      In summary, understanding the differences between dementia and delirium is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. While both conditions can affect cognitive abilities and behavior, they have distinct features that can help differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles,...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
      Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?

      Your Answer: Bradykinesia

      Explanation:

      Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications

      Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.

      Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.

      Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.

      Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left arm, four weeks after being involved in a car accident. Despite being discharged from the hospital without injuries, they woke up this morning unable to move these limbs. There is no pain, but the paralysis is causing significant distress. On examination, there are no visible injuries, normal tone, and intact sensation in all four limbs. All reflexes are normal, but power in the affected limbs is MRC 0/5, while the contralateral limbs are MRC 5/5. Hoover's sign is positive on the affected leg, and there are no abnormalities in the cranial nerve exam. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Factitious disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function and may be triggered by stress. In this case, the patient has experienced a stressful accident and is now exhibiting functional paralysis, without voluntary movement but some involuntary movements due to reflexes and a positive Hoover’s sign. This sign indicates that the unaffected leg is compensating for the affected leg’s lack of movement by contracting synergistically.

      It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from factitious disorder, which involves feigning symptoms to gain attention from healthcare professionals. This is because the neurological symptoms and the recent stressful event suggest conversion disorder, and the presence of Hoover’s sign is not consistent with feigned paralysis.

      Lacunar strokes, which cause paralysis on one side with contralateral sensory loss, would not present with this pattern of paralysis and would not be delayed in onset after the accident. Malingering, or faking symptoms for personal gain, is also unlikely at this stage.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-year history...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-year history of restricting food intake and self-induced vomiting. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: What to Expect

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s physical health, including their cardiovascular system. When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, there are several medical investigations that may be considered. Here is what you can expect:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): This is a baseline test that assesses heart rate and the QT interval. Electrolyte imbalances caused by eating disorders can affect cardiac stability, so it’s important to check for any cardiovascular instability.

      24-hour Holter monitor: This test may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.

      Chest X-ray: This is not routinely required unless there are other respiratory symptoms present.

      Serum prolactin: This test is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.

      Transthoracic echocardiography: This test is not routinely required unless there are clinical indications for imaging of the heart.

      Overall, medical investigations for anorexia nervosa are tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine which tests are necessary for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional disorder

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that is commonly prescribed for the treatment of major...

    Incorrect

    • Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that is commonly prescribed for the treatment of major depression, anxiety, and panic disorder. What is the most accurate description of the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Blockage of presynaptic alpha 2 adrenoreceptors

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, which leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic space. This is why it is effective in treating depression, as it targets the alpha 2 receptors, noradrenaline, and serotonin.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - You're on an acute take ward and you are asked to see a...

    Correct

    • You're on an acute take ward and you are asked to see a patient by your foundation doctor. The foundation doctor is concerned about this patient as he is uncertain of the next step in management and investigation.
      The patient is a 46-year-old male who has been admitted with excess tearing. He has a past medical history of allergic rhinitis. He uses nasal saline rinses several times a day. His father recently died of lung cancer with brain metastases.
      This patient has had extensive investigations in multiple other hospitals due to his concerns of a cancer diagnosis causing his excessively watery eyes. He has had three CT orbits in the last 12 months which have been reported as normal. On ophthalmic examination, he has some crusting and erythema of his lid margins, but it is a normal examination otherwise. The patient remains convinced that a cancer diagnosis still can't be excluded.
      What is the reason for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Illness anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a persistent belief that there is an underlying serious disease present, such as cancer. This can lead to recurrent visits to healthcare providers, even after a cause for the patient’s symptoms has been identified.

      In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms have been attributed to external eye disorders such as ectropion and blepharitis, which can affect tear drainage and cause dry or watery eyes. However, the patient still expresses a fear that there may be an undiscovered underlying cause for their symptoms.

      This fear is consistent with illness anxiety disorder, which is one of several psychological disorders that can lead to frequent healthcare visits. Another example is conversion disorder, which involves the loss of a function without a medical or structural cause. While patients may not be bothered by the symptoms themselves, they are often associated with previous distressing experiences and other mental health conditions.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a backache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a backache that has persisted for the last two weeks. The doctor diagnoses her with a muscle strain and recommends rest with paracetamol for pain as needed. The patient requested narcotic pain medicine, but the doctor refused to prescribe the drug because she thought a medicine of that strength was unnecessary. The patient left the examination room angrily and yelled at the reception staff on her way out.
      Which of the following defence mechanisms was the patient demonstrating?

      Your Answer: Fixation

      Correct Answer: Displacement

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Psychology

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations or emotions. These mechanisms can be conscious or unconscious and can be adaptive or maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms:

      Displacement: This occurs when a person redirects their emotions or impulses from the original source to a neutral or innocent person or object.

      Projection: This is when a person attributes their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else.

      Denial: This is when a person refuses to accept reality or a diagnosis, often to avoid the pain or discomfort associated with it.

      Fixation: This is when a person becomes overly focused on a particular thought, idea, or object as a way of coping with stress.

      Splitting: This is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder, where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, and may switch between these views rapidly.

      Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize when they are using them and work towards more adaptive coping strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presented to the outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of his tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia 20 years ago and has been on haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, his temperature was 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Respiratory rate was 14 cycles/min. There was pronounced choreoathetoid movement of his hands and fingers.
      What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition where patients on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication, such as antipsychotics, may experience involuntary muscle movements in various parts of their body. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, where patients experience restlessness and an inability to remain still. Serotonin syndrome can occur when patients take an overdose or combination of certain medications, resulting in symptoms such as ataxia, agitation, and tremors. Acute dystonia refers to muscle contractions following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and changes in consciousness. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and providing supportive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old...

    Correct

    • During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 3 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated the urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention may be a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants, particularly with the use of Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic properties. This can lead to symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, and mydriasis. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are less likely to cause urinary retention and dry mouth. Benzodiazepines like diazepam do not have anticholinergic effects.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued. She struggles to fall asleep at night and has difficulty getting up in the morning. Despite her love for exercise, she lacks motivation and finds it hard to engage in physical activity.

      What is the duration of her symptoms that would warrant a diagnosis of a depressive episode?

      Your Answer: One week

      Correct Answer: Two weeks

      Explanation:

      DSM-IV Criteria for Diagnosing Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has adopted the DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing depression. The key symptoms include persistent sadness or low mood and marked loss of interests or pleasure. These symptoms must be present for at least two weeks, most days, most of the time.

      In addition to the core symptoms, other associated symptoms may include disturbed sleep, changes in appetite and weight, fatigue, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt, and suicidal thoughts or acts.

      It is important to note that these symptoms can vary in duration. Some individuals may experience symptoms for only two days, while others may experience them for up to two months. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of depression, it is important to seek professional help.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions. He prefers solitude and is hesitant to share his beliefs with others, which they find peculiar. During the consultation, the patient talks in a high-pitched voice about his fascination with horror movies and his 'spirit-guide' that protects him. However, he denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and does not display any delusional thinking. Additionally, there is no evidence of pressure of speech. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The man seeking help has social anxiety and prefers to be alone. He has an interest in paranormal phenomena and talks in a high-pitched voice when discussing his spirit guide. These symptoms suggest that he may have schizotypal personality disorder, which is characterized by magical thinking and odd speech patterns. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizoid personality disorder are all incorrect diagnoses.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?

      Your Answer: 10 hours

      Correct Answer: 8 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.

      Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident. He had been working on a major project that would secure his promotion and position in the firm. After months of hard work, he was just about to finalize the project when his team member made a mistake that caused a setback. Frustrated by the setback, your patient began yelling, stomping on the floor and throwing objects until he broke a window.
      Which one of the following ego defences best describes his behaviour?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Regression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defence Mechanisms: Types and Examples

      Regression, Sublimation, Identification, Dissociation, and Reaction Formation are all ego defence mechanisms that individuals use to cope with stress and anxiety.

      Regression is an immature defence mechanism where individuals revert to childish behaviour when faced with stress. For example, a frustrated person may throw a temper tantrum like a toddler.

      Sublimation, on the other hand, is a mature defence mechanism where individuals channel their unacceptable personality traits into respectable work that aligns with their values.

      Identification is when individuals model the behaviour of a more powerful person. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.

      Dissociation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals temporarily modify their personal identity to avoid distress. An extreme form of dissociation is dissociative identity disorder.

      Finally, Reaction Formation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals repress unacceptable emotions and replace them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.

      Understanding these ego defence mechanisms can help individuals recognize and cope with their own stress and anxiety in a healthy way.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: beclomethasone inhaler

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised her to stop taking sertraline at 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had taken it during her previous two pregnancies and had two healthy children. She insists on knowing the potential risks associated with sertraline use during the first trimester. What are the increased risks during this period?

      Your Answer: Spina bifida

      Correct Answer: Congenital heart defects

      Explanation:

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess both the potential benefits and risks. Research has shown that using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects in the baby. Additionally, using SSRIs during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn. It is important to note that paroxetine, in particular, has been associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially when used during the first trimester.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable...

    Correct

    • A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable to form new memories and, as such, is stuck in 1992, believing that the Gulf War is ongoing. He has been hospitalised since 1993. He is unaware of his memory problem and confabulates his story when you try to point out the discrepancies between his stories and reality. He is able to remember everything up until 1992 without any problem.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of his disorder?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Common Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

      Vitamin B1 Deficiency:
      Korsakoff’s amnesia is a severe neurological disorder caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1). This condition is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics and is characterized by anterograde amnesia, confabulations, and bilateral loss of the mammillary bodies in the brain. Thiamine deficiency can also lead to beriberi, which presents with polyneuritis and symmetrical muscle wasting in the dry form and dilated cardiomyopathy in the wet form.

      Vitamin B6 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B6 is essential for GABA synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to convulsions, neuropathy, and hyperirritability.

      Conversion Disorder:
      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition characterized by the presence of a deficit, such as paralysis or numbness, without any identifiable somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom but are aware of the problem.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined neurodegeneration, and glossitis.

      Vitamin C Deficiency:
      Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy, which presents with swollen gums, easy bruising, anemia, and poor wound healing.

      Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year old man is deeply concerned that a mole on his arm...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old man is deeply concerned that a mole on his arm may be cancerous. He has consulted with a dermatologist who has assured him that it is a benign pigmented nevus, but the patient remains convinced that he will develop skin cancer. What is the term for neurotic anxiety related to a serious medical condition that cannot be alleviated by medical reassurance, assuming there are no other significant psychiatric disorders present?

      Your Answer: Munchausen syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between disorders related to illness and pain

      There are several disorders related to illness and pain that can be difficult to differentiate. Hypochondriasis, also known as Illness anxiety disorder, is characterized by excessive fear of having or developing a disease. Malingering, on the other hand, involves faking or causing disease to escape obligations or obtain monetary rewards.

      Somatisation disorder is diagnosed when a patient experiences symptoms for at least two years and seeks reassurance from multiple healthcare professionals, impacting their social and family functioning. Pain disorder is characterized by experiencing pain without obvious physical basis or exceeding the normal distress associated with an illness.

      Finally, Munchausen syndrome is a severe form of factitious disorder where patients present with dramatic, faked, or induced physical or psychological complaints and even submit to unwarranted invasive treatments. It is important to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

      Which of the following is not a risk associated with ECT?

      Your Answer: Induction of cardiac arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Induction of dementia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects and Memory Loss Associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce a seizure. While side effects of ECT are rare, some patients may experience memory loss. During the course of ECT, patients may have difficulty remembering newly learned information, but this typically improves in the days and weeks following treatment. However, some patients may experience partial loss of memory for events that occurred before ECT, which may take longer to recover.

      Despite these potential memory issues, some patients report improved memory ability following ECT, as it can remove the amnesia associated with severe depression. It is important to note that cardiac arrhythmia may be stimulated by the electrical shock of ECT, but musculoskeletal injury is rare with adequate anesthesia.

      It is also important to dispel the myth that ECT can cause dementia. Dementia is an organic illness that is not induced by ECT. Research has not found a link between ECT and dementia, but this remains an area of focus for further study. Overall, while ECT may have some potential side effects, it can be a highly effective treatment for severe depression and other mental health conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as Sarah has not had her first period. She is 1.50m tall and weighs 40 Kg. Her heart rate is 60 beats per minute. Blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg. She has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics. There is a strong family history of eating disorder. You suspect that the delayed puberty may be due to anorexia nervosa.
      What evidence supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Lanugo hair

      Explanation:

      The presence of lanugo hair, which is fine and downy hair that grows in response to body fat loss, can be a characteristic physical finding that supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. However, this should be considered alongside other features such as the failure of secondary sexual characteristics, bradycardia, cold intolerance, and a yellow tinge on the skin (hypercarotenaemia). Anosmia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa, but it may be relevant in patients with Kallmann syndrome, which involves anosmia and delayed or absent puberty. Hirsutism, which is excessive hair growth, is indicative of elevated testosterone levels and is not compatible with anorexia nervosa. Hyperkalaemia is an incorrect feature, as hypokalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in anorexia. Patients with anorexia nervosa often have high cholesterol levels in their blood.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
      Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
      Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia, paranoid type

      Correct Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:

      Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.

      Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.

      Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.

      Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.

      In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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