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  • Question 1 - You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing...

    Incorrect

    • You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.

      Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Chest x ray

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma

      Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).

      Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 2 - Jacob is a 27-year-old man with asthma, eczema, hayfever, type 1 diabetes and...

    Incorrect

    • Jacob is a 27-year-old man with asthma, eczema, hayfever, type 1 diabetes and coeliac disease. He also suffers from oral allergy syndrome and reacts to banana, carrots and kiwifruit.

      Among Jacob's health conditions, which one is most closely linked to oral allergy syndrome?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Hayfever

      Explanation:

      Seasonal variation is a common feature of oral allergy syndrome, which is closely associated with pollen allergies such as hayfever.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently...

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    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently registered. She is experiencing sneezing, an itchy nose, and itchy, watery eyes. She suspects that her symptoms are due to allergies and would like to undergo comprehensive allergy testing to inform her workplace and make necessary adjustments. She also wonders if she should carry an EpiPen.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's allergy?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Seasonal rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Common Allergic and Non-Allergic Conditions: Causes and Differences

      Seasonal rhinitis, atopic eczema, chronic urticaria, lactose intolerance, and coeliac disease are common conditions that can cause discomfort and distress. Understanding their causes and differences is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Seasonal rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is caused by allergens such as tree pollen, grass, mould spores, and weeds. It is an IgE-mediated reaction that occurs at certain times of the year.

      Atopic eczema can be aggravated by dietary factors in some children, but less frequently in adults. Food allergy should be suspected in children who have immediate reactions to food or infants with moderate or severe eczema that is not well-controlled.

      Chronic urticaria may have an immunological or autoimmune cause, but can also be idiopathic or caused by physical factors, drugs, or dietary pseudo allergens. It presents with a rash.

      Lactose intolerance is due to an enzyme deficiency and is different from milk allergy, which is IgE-mediated. It can occur following gastroenteritis.

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the small intestine in response to gluten exposure. It is not a gluten allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent...

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    • A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
      On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough

      A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.

      While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.

      In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies

      Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old severely atopic boy is brought to the practice by his father....

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    • A 10-year-old severely atopic boy is brought to the practice by his father. The father produces drugs from his bag and wants to ‘sort them out and get a repeat prescription’. He says the child is currently reasonably well. Among the items are:
      an empty packet of prednisolone 5 mg tablets (30 tablets) dated 10 months ago, take six tablets daily for five days
      budesonide dry powder inhaler 200 µg, use two puffs twice a day
      hydrocortisone cream 1%, apply twice a day to inflamed skin (30 g tube)
      loratadine syrup (5 mg/5 ml), take one 5 ml dose daily
      sodium cromoglicate eye drops use in both eyes four times a day.
      Which item seems the MOST SIGNIFICANT in importance in the first instance to discuss with the father?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budesonide

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for an Atopic Child with Asthma

      When reviewing the medication of an atopic child with asthma, it is important to consider the dosage of inhaled corticosteroids, the potency of topical corticosteroids, and the effectiveness of antihistamines and rescue courses of prednisolone. In this case, the child is using a medium dose of budesonide, which suggests the need for specialist care. The use of mild hydrocortisone for atopic eczema may not be sufficient, and a larger tube may be needed. Loratadine is an effective non-sedating antihistamine for allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis, and repeat prescriptions are appropriate. Short courses of prednisolone may be necessary for acute exacerbations, and sodium cromoglicate can be used intermittently for allergic conjunctivitis. Overall, careful consideration of medication is crucial for managing the symptoms of an atopic child with asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper respiratory tract infections that have been prolonged and complicated with sinusitis and bronchitis. His general practitioner is concerned that the patient may have a secondary immunodeficiency due to the chronic medical condition (rather than being caused by the medication used to treat his condition).
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a secondary immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immunodeficiency in Various Medical Conditions

      Immunodeficiency is a condition where the immune system is weakened, making individuals more susceptible to infections. While some medical conditions are directly associated with immunodeficiency, others are not. Chronic kidney disease, particularly end-stage disease requiring dialysis, is linked to secondary immunodeficiency, making patients vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, peritonitis, influenza, tuberculosis, and pneumonia. Similarly, some disease-modifying drugs used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis have immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive effects, increasing the risk of infection. Asthma and psoriasis are not typically associated with immunodeficiency, but long-term use of oral corticosteroids and certain medications used to treat severe psoriasis can increase the risk of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a direct cause of immunodeficiency, but disease-modifying drugs used in its treatment can increase the risk. Overall, drug treatment is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency, with cancer treatment being a significant concern. Other causes include HIV, surgery or trauma, and malnutrition. Understanding the relationship between various medical conditions and immunodeficiency is crucial in managing patient care and preventing infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent...

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    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent blood tests she had done due to ongoing symptoms of chronic fatigue. She has a previous diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) from a few years ago, but is otherwise healthy and has never had her blood checked before. She reports experiencing intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, and abdominal pains. She is not taking any medications, her weight is stable, and her blood tests show microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels. Which of the following tests is most likely to lead to an accurate diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase (TTG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms: A Case Study

      A 28-year-old female patient presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, abdominal pains, and persistent fatigue. She has never had any blood tests before. The following diagnostic tests are available:

      Tissue Transglutaminase (TTG) Test: This test is used to diagnose coeliac disease, an immune-mediated disorder triggered by exposure to dietary gluten. The patient’s symptoms and history suggest coeliac disease, and a TTG test should be requested. If the result suggests possible coeliac disease, the patient should be referred to gastroenterology for endoscopic intestinal biopsy.

      Faecal Immunochemical Testing (FIT): FIT testing can be used to look for occult faecal blood if colorectal cancer is suspected. However, the patient’s young age and stable weight make colorectal cancer less likely.

      Cancer-Antigen 125 (CA-125) Test: This test is used to diagnose ovarian cancer, which is difficult to diagnose due to nonspecific symptoms. However, the patient’s age makes ovarian cancer less likely than other options.

      Faecal Calprotectin Test: This test is used to distinguish between inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). However, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest IBD, and faecal calprotectin may not be the most likely test to lead to the correct diagnosis.

      Haemochromatosis Gene (HFE) Testing: This test is used to detect hereditary haemochromatosis, which presents with iron overload rather than deficiency. The patient’s symptoms suggest iron-deficiency anaemia, and HFE testing may not be necessary.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, a TTG test for coeliac disease is the most appropriate diagnostic test to request.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 9 - A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut...

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    • A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
      Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected

      Explanation:

      Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment

      Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.

      The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.

      Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.

      Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.

      While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy comes to the clinic with facial swelling. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. What type of adrenaline should be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM

      Explanation:

      Please find below the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS) in different scenarios:

      – Anaphylaxis: 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline should be administered intramuscularly.
      – Cardiac arrest: For intravenous administration, 1 mg or 10ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline or 1 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline is recommended.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high

      Explanation:

      Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure

      Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 12 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice....

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    • A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
      Select from the list the single most correct management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test

      Explanation:

      Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 14 - You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein allergy. He is exclusively breastfed. You would like to do a trial elimination of cows' milk from his diet.

      What would you advise the mother to achieve this trial elimination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Non-IgE-Mediated Cow’s’ Milk Protein Allergy in Infants

      When dealing with a breastfed infant suspected of having non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy, it is recommended to advise the mother to exclude cows’ milk from her diet for 2-6 weeks. During this period, calcium and vitamin D supplements may be prescribed to ensure the infant’s nutritional needs are met. After the exclusion period, reintroducing cows’ milk is advised to determine if it is the cause of the infant’s symptoms. If there is no improvement or the symptoms worsen, a referral to secondary care may be necessary.

      For formula-fed or mixed-fed infants, replacing cow’s milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formulas is recommended. Extensively hydrolysed formulas (eHF) are typically the first option, and amino acid formulas are an alternative if the infant cannot tolerate eHFs or has severe symptoms. It is important to note that parents should not switch to soy-based formulas without consulting a healthcare professional, as some infants with cow’s’ milk protein allergy may also be allergic to soy.

      In cases where there is faltering growth, acute systemic reactions, severe delayed reactions, significant atopic eczema with multiple food allergies suspected, or persistent parental concern, a referral to secondary care should be considered. With proper management and guidance, infants with non-IgE-mediated cow’s’ milk protein allergy can still receive adequate nutrition and thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please...

    Incorrect

    • Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please select one option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency

      Secondary immunodeficiency can be caused by various factors such as lymphoreticular malignancy, drugs, viruses, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, trauma or major surgery, and protein loss. Lymphoma, myeloma, cytotoxic drugs, and immunosuppressants like corticosteroids are some of the common causes of secondary immunodeficiency. HIV is also a significant cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Malnutrition, particularly protein calorie deficiency, is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide. Metabolic disorders like renal disease requiring peritoneal dialysis can also lead to secondary immunodeficiency. Trauma or major surgery and protein loss due to nephrotic syndrome or ulcerative or erosive gastrointestinal disease can also cause secondary immunodeficiency. While heart failure, lung cancer, and polycythemia are consequences of HIV infection, sarcoidosis has been reported to occur in patients with common variable immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher, and two children in the kindergarten have developed Chickenpox. Her own mother is certain that she had Chickenpox as a child.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give in order to reassure this woman that her baby is not at risk from this Chickenpox contact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient is at low risk of developing an infection as she is sure she had a previous Chickenpox infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chickenpox Serology Results in Pregnancy

      Chickenpox infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, it is important to determine a woman’s immunity status before she is exposed to the virus. Serology testing can help determine if a woman has been previously infected or vaccinated against Chickenpox. Here are the possible results and their implications:

      – Negative IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has not been previously exposed to the virus and is not immune. She should avoid exposure and receive immunoglobulin if she has significant exposure. She should also be vaccinated postpartum.
      – Positive IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has been previously infected or vaccinated and has protective immunity against re-infection. This is the desired result if the woman has no history of Chickenpox.
      – Positive IgG and positive IgM serology: This suggests recent infection, but should not be used alone to diagnose infection. Clinical presentation should also be considered. If the woman develops Chickenpox, she should receive acyclovir.
      – No serology testing needed: If the woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, she is considered immune and doesn’t need serology testing.

      It is important to note that a history of Chickenpox may not be a reliable predictor of immunity in women from overseas, and serology testing may be necessary. The NICE guidance on Chickenpox infection in pregnancy provides further recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Infections after Renal Transplantation: Common Types and Risks

      Renal transplant patients are at high risk of infections, with over 50% experiencing at least one infection in the first year. In the first month, the risk is similar to that of non-immunosuppressed individuals, with common infections such as postoperative pneumonias and wound infections. However, in the one to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6 become more problematic.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions, including disseminated mucocutaneous disease, oesophagitis, hepatitis, and pneumonitis. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but the injectable inactivated vaccine is safe for kidney transplant recipients. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common in the general population, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation.

      A small group of patients may experience persistent viral infections, and those who require additional immunosuppression are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia. Urinary infections are the most common after renal transplantation, and patients usually receive prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after the procedure.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)

      Explanation:

      The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.

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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.

      One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.

      Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.

      It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.

      In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines and an intranasal corticosteroid. She is seeking a refill and has questions about her condition, including why she doesn't only experience symptoms in the summer like some of her acquaintances. She is also curious about the possibility of testing. What is the most suitable explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mainly adults have this condition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perennial Rhinitis: Causes and Diagnosis

      Perennial rhinitis is a condition that occurs throughout the year, and it is more common in adults than in children. While seasonal rhinitis is more likely to affect older children and adolescents, perennial rhinitis is persistent and can be caused by various allergens, including house-dust mites, feathers, animal dander, or allergens at work.

      Skin-prick testing is the most sensitive way to investigate the condition, as it measures specific IgE antibodies in the blood. However, it may not always be sensitive enough, and other tests, such as patch testing, may be indicated.

      It is important to note that not all cases of perennial rhinitis have an allergic cause, but the response to medication can often provide clues. If an allergic cause is suspected, avoidance measures may be considered to manage symptoms.

      Overall, understanding the causes and diagnosis of perennial rhinitis can help individuals manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for review, as she is concerned about her frequent ear and chest infections. She was born full term with no complications. Her mother reports that she tried to breastfeed but ended up converting to formula as she was failing to thrive, and she still often brings food up through her nose.
      On examination, she has low-set ears, hypertelorism (wide-set eyes) and hooded eyelids. She makes some babbling noises but doesn't say any words yet. A set of blood tests reveal low calcium. There is no family history of recurrent infections.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between immunodeficiency disorders in a pediatric patient

      This patient presents with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including hypocalcaemia, developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, and feeding difficulties. The differential diagnosis includes DiGeorge syndrome, selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), and physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic syndrome that commonly presents with mild immunodeficiency due to reduced thymus function or absence of a thymus. Facial dysmorphism, such as low-set ears, hypertelorism, and hooded eyelids, is also common.

      Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary antibody deficiency and may be associated with autoimmune disease or allergies. It is not associated with characteristic facies or low calcium.

      Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia is an X-linked immunodeficiency that presents with severe respiratory tract infections in male infants. It is unlikely in this case as the patient is female with a different clinical picture.

      CVID is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults and presents with recurrent bacterial infections. It is not associated with the characteristic facies described here or developmental delay, feeding difficulties, or hypocalcaemia.

      Physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy is a common phenomenon where babies gradually lose their mother’s immunoglobulin G and replace it with their own. It is not associated with any additional facial features, blood abnormalities, or developmental or feeding delay.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and testing are necessary to differentiate between these immunodeficiency disorders in this pediatric patient.

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  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he has had for 2 hours. He started taking a new medication yesterday. During the examination, his lips are found to be swollen. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute. He reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What medication could be responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling under the skin, can be caused by various allergens as well as certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. antihistamines are a common treatment option depending on the underlying cause. However, the medications listed other than ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs are not known to cause angioedema.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

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  • Question 26 - In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

      When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.

      To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.

      Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for his first seasonal influenza vaccination. He reports a history of anaphylaxis and carries an epipen. What would be a contraindication to administering the vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food allergy to egg

      Explanation:

      Being mindful of contraindications for the influenza vaccine is crucial. The presence of ovalbumin, an egg protein, in the regular influenza vaccine may lead to anaphylaxis in individuals with a severe egg allergy. To address this concern, egg protein-free vaccines such as Optaflu are accessible for these patients.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 28 - A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.

      What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies

      IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.

      Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.

      A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.

      It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.

      In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.

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  • Question 29 - A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation

      Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:

      – The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
      – HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
      – Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
      – Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
      – Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.

      It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.

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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of breath. During the examination, her haemoglobin level is measured at 70 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l), and her serum vitamin B12 level is found to be 95 ng/l (normal range: 130–700 ng/l). Which of the following positive tests would suggest that pernicious anaemia is the likely cause of her vitamin B12 deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor (IF) antibody

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies in the Diagnosis of Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of megaloblastic anaemia caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to autoimmune destruction of gastric glands and loss of intrinsic factor (IF). IF antibodies, specifically type I and type II, are present in 50% of patients with pernicious anaemia and are specific to this disorder. Therefore, they can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other autoantibodies, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and gastric anti-parietal cell (GPC) antibodies, are not specific to pernicious anaemia but may be present in some patients. ANA is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases, while GPC antibodies occur in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia but are also positive in 10% of normal individuals.

      Tests such as the Coombs test, which detect antibodies that attack red blood cells, are not used in the investigation of pernicious anaemia. Similarly, the immunoglobulin A tissue transglutaminase measurement is not diagnostic of pernicious anaemia but is used as the first-choice test for suspected coeliac disease in young people and adults.

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