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  • Question 1 - How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants? ...

    Correct

    • How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?

      Your Answer: Intradermally

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.

      The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.

      There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis. What are the available treatment options for this condition?

      Your Answer: Warfarin or Rivaroxaban or Dabigatran or Apixaban

      Explanation:

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular inhalers and is otherwise well. She also takes a combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Oral Candidiasis

      Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection that can affect the mouth and throat. While it can occur in anyone, certain medications can increase the risk of developing this condition. Here is a breakdown of how different medications may impact the likelihood of oral candidiasis:

      Inhaled Corticosteroid: Patients with well-controlled asthma may use inhaled corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation can help reduce this risk. Antifungal medication can be used to treat oral candidiasis without discontinuing therapy.

      Inhaled β2 Agonist: This type of inhaler is used as a reliever for poorly controlled asthma and doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Common side effects include palpitations, tremors, and hypokalaemia.

      Combined Oral Contraceptive: While the combined oral contraceptive pill doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis, it may be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis.

      Montelukast: This oral medication used to treat asthma doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, along with gastrointestinal problems, headaches, and sleep disturbance.

      Type II Diabetes Mellitus: Patients with poorly controlled diabetes may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, including oral candidiasis. If a patient presents with symptoms or risk factors for diabetes, blood glucose and/or haemoglobin A1c should be checked.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and oral candidiasis can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 3-year-old boy has a seizure associated with a temperature of 38.5°C. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has a seizure associated with a temperature of 38.5°C. The seizure lasts for three minutes and he regains consciousness. He has symptoms suggestive of an upper respiratory infection but has no abnormal physical signs.
      Which option is MOST LIKELY to influence a doctor in favour of managing him at home?

      Your Answer: This is her first febrile seizure

      Correct Answer: She had a similar febrile seizure six months ago

      Explanation:

      Managing Febrile Seizures in Children: Factors to Consider

      Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, but certain factors must be considered when deciding on the appropriate management approach. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – If the child has fully recovered from the seizure within an hour, there is no likely serious cause for the fever, the child looks well, and the parents are able to manage the febrile episode, it may be reasonable to manage the child at home.
      – If the child has had a previous febrile seizure, an early review of their condition is desirable, as febrile seizures can recur in about 30% of children.
      – If the child is currently taking antibiotics or has recently been taking them, this may mask meningitis or other serious causes for the fever, so caution is advised.
      – If the parents are very anxious about the child, hospital admission may be appropriate, as they may not be able to cope with the illness at home.
      – If this is the child’s first febrile seizure, immediate paediatric assessment is indicated.
      – If the seizure was a complex febrile seizure (duration > 15 minutes, focal features, recurrence in the same illness, incomplete recovery after one hour), specialist assessment is appropriate. Other indications for specialist assessment include no obvious focus for infection and diagnostic uncertainty.

      In summary, managing febrile seizures in children requires careful consideration of various factors, including the child’s medical history, current medications, and parental support. Specialist assessment may be necessary in certain cases to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24 hour urine collection.

      Which of the following urine albumin concentrations indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?

      Your Answer: 10 mg/day

      Correct Answer: 3.5 g/day

      Explanation:

      Understanding Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not just an early indicator of renal involvement but also identifies an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, with an approximate twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients.

      To measure the total albumin excretion, the albumin: creatinine ratio is used as a useful surrogate. The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. Microalbuminuria is indicated when the albumin:creatinine ratio is ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women). Proteinuria is indicated by a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol.

      In summary, understanding microalbuminuria and proteinuria is crucial in identifying early renal involvement and increased cardiovascular risk. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful tool in measuring total albumin excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.

      Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her teachers that she doesn't seem to pay attention in class. She reports the girl often turns up the volume of the television while at home. On examination, the right eardrum is retracted and there is loss of the light reflex. You suspect otitis media with effusion and arrange pure tone audiometry which reveals moderate hearing loss particularly at low frequencies. She presented to your colleague 10 weeks previously with similar symptoms, with similar audiometry findings.

      What is the next most appropriate management in primary care according to the current NICE CKS guidance?

      Your Answer: Refer to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist for further management

      Explanation:

      If a child has significant hearing loss due to glue ear on two separate occasions, it is recommended to refer them to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests observing children with otitis media with effusion for 6-12 weeks as spontaneous resolution is common. However, if the signs and symptoms persist after this period, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. It is important to inquire about any concerns regarding the child’s hearing or language development and for any complications. Immediate referral is required for children with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate who are suspected to have otitis media with effusion. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. The most common surgical option is myringotomy and insertion of grommets, but non-surgical management options are also considered by the ENT specialist. As the child in question has already presented with persistent hearing loss after 12 weeks, referral to ENT is appropriate at this point.

      Understanding Glue Ear

      Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.

      The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs)....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
      ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
      AST 130 U/L (10-40)
      Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
      What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.

      Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: A formal impact assessment of the proposed surgery timing change is essential

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.

      Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?

      Your Answer: Nicotine gum

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent

      Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.

      The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has not had a wet diaper for the past 12 hours. Her mother suspects a lump in her tummy. Additionally, she has been refusing to walk for the past 36 hours and has been crying excessively. What type of cancer is most likely to present with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Symptoms of Neuroblastoma in Children

      Neuroblastoma is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It can be difficult to detect in primary care due to its rarity and vague symptoms. The most common symptom is a lump in the abdomen, which may cause swelling or pain. However, children with neuroblastoma may also experience general symptoms of metastatic disease, such as malaise, bone pain, and respiratory issues. Other concerning symptoms include proptosis, unexplained back pain, leg weakness, and urinary retention. These symptoms may indicate that the tumour is pressing on the spinal cord or adjacent to the adrenal glands. Excessive catecholamine release can also cause tachycardia, flushing, sweating, weight loss, and watery diarrhoea. If a child presents with symptoms that could be explained by neuroblastoma, an abdominal examination and urgent abdominal ultrasound should be performed, along with a chest x-ray and full blood count. Any identified mass should prompt an urgent referral. Knowing the age at peak incidence can also aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.

      What is the most suitable test to perform?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old female patient of yours has a history of bilateral dry eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient of yours has a history of bilateral dry eyes and was prescribed hypromellose in the past. She now reports persistent discomfort and grittiness in her eyes despite using hypromellose for over three months.

      What would be your next course of action in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer patient to an ophthalmologist in the near future

      Correct Answer: Stop the hypromellose and try her on another type of ocular lubricant

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Addressing Dry Eye in General Practice

      Dry eye is a common condition that is often overlooked as a trivial problem. However, it can be an under-treated condition that causes discomfort and visual debility for patients. Unfortunately, many clinicians do not take the time to explore the patient’s genuine concerns and the impact of dry eyes on their mental health.

      It is important to note that not all ocular lubricants are suitable or agreeable to all patients. Therefore, if one lubricant is not working, there are many others that can be tried before referring the patient to ophthalmology. This condition must be treated on a case-by-case basis to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

      In conclusion, addressing dry eye in general practice is crucial to improving the quality of life for patients. By taking the time to understand their concerns and exploring different treatment options, clinicians can help alleviate discomfort and improve visual function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer: Iron and folate supplements should be routinely prescribed

      Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.

      The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.

      To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.

      Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last up to four hours and are associated with vomiting and uncomfortable pressure in the right ear.

      On examination during an attack he is noted to have right horizontal nystagmus together with mild right-sided sensorineural deafness.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Ménière’s Disease: A History of Paroxysmal Attacks

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal attacks that can last for hours and consist of vertigo, vomiting, pressure within the ear, and deafness. These attacks can lead to irreversible sensorineural deafness of low frequency. Tinnitus is often present but may not occur in the early stages, making the classic triad of tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness unreliable for diagnosis.

      Prochlorperazine or cinnarizine can help with vomiting, and restricting salt and fluid intake may hasten resolution. Diuretics may also be used, but there is little evidence for their efficacy. Unilateral hearing loss caused by acoustic neuroma is uncommonly associated with vertigo.

      Benign positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo that are triggered by movement. Labyrinthitis is characterized by acute disabling vertigo, usually preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection, and is rarely episodic. Vertebrobasilar ischaemic attacks last only a few minutes and typically cause a mild swaying or swimming sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman presents with exertional breathlessness and heart failure is suspected. She...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with exertional breathlessness and heart failure is suspected. She is not acutely unwell. She has a history of chronic hypertension and takes amlodipine but no other medication.
      An NT-proBNP level is ordered and the result is 962 pg/mL.
      What is the next best course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for specialist assessment and echocardiography to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Measuring NT-proBNP Levels for Heart Failure Assessment

      Measuring NT-proBNP levels is a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure and determining the appropriate referral pathway. If the NT-proBNP level is greater than 2000 pg/mL, urgent specialist referral and echocardiography should be conducted within 2 weeks. For NT-proBNP levels between 400 and 2000 pg/mL, referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography should occur within 6 weeks. If the NT-proBNP level is less than 400 pg/mL, heart failure is less likely, but it is still important to consider discussing with a specialist if clinical suspicion persists. By utilizing NT-proBNP levels, healthcare professionals can effectively manage and treat patients with suspected heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease is inaccurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine contraceptive devices should always be removed following diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Mild cases of pelvic inflammatory disease do not require removal of intrauterine contraceptive devices.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her mother is becoming increasingly apathetic, some days not getting out of bed and wearing the same clothes for a number of days in a row. She appears to be having difficulty with word finding. You understand that her husband died three months earlier. Apart from hypertension, she is otherwise physically well.
      Physical examination is unremarkable. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Her heart rate is 72 bpm and regular.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of dementia and depression

      When assessing a patient with cognitive decline, it is important to consider the various possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently lost their spouse and is experiencing symptoms such as apathy and sleep disturbance, depression is the most likely diagnosis. Cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended intervention in this situation.

      Multi-infarct dementia, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with vascular risk factors such as diabetes and atrial fibrillation. This type of dementia is characterized by a stepwise decline in functioning, with personality traits remaining relatively intact until late in the disease.

      Alcohol abuse can also lead to cognitive decline, with weight loss and signs of chronic liver disease being common physical manifestations.

      Alzheimer’s dementia is associated with progressive short-term memory loss, difficulties with language and decision-making, and problems with planning. While patients may present with dementia after the death of a partner, the symptoms described here are more consistent with depression.

      Finally, frontal lobe dementia is characterized by early symptoms of inappropriate social behaviour, disinhibition, and loss of empathy and sympathy. Memory loss is a late feature of this disease. By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Wait until he is eligible for the national screening programme

      Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is considered a second degree relative according to the latest guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered a second degree relative according to the latest guidance on referral for genetic counselling for inherited conditions?

      Your Answer: First cousin

      Correct Answer: Half sibling

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Degree of Relationship in Medicine

      In medicine, it is crucial to comprehend the degree of relationship to interpret referral guidelines for various conditions. With the advancement of genetic predisposition knowledge and the emergence of robust referral guidelines, this area of medicine is becoming increasingly important. The NHS National Genetics and Genomics Education Centre defines a person’s first degree relative as a parent, sibling, or child, sharing about half of their genes with the person. A second degree relative includes an uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, grandparent, grandchild, or half-sibling, sharing about one quarter of their genes with the person. Lastly, a third degree relative is a first cousin, great-grandparent, or great-grandchild, sharing about one eighth of their genes with the person. Understanding the degree of relationship is essential in determining the likelihood of genetic predisposition and the appropriate referral guidelines for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 12-month-old girl comes in with a unilateral purulent nasal discharge and worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old girl comes in with a unilateral purulent nasal discharge and worsening bad breath over the past few days. However, she doesn't exhibit any systemic symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nasal foreign body

      Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Discharge in Children: A Possible Sign of Foreign Body

      The occurrence of unilateral discharge in an otherwise healthy child may indicate the presence of a foreign body, especially in this age group. It is important to consider the child’s history to determine the possible cause of the discharge. If a foreign body is suspected, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further complications. Fortunately, removal of the foreign body is usually curative and can alleviate the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has been going on for 6 months. She reports experiencing episodes that last from a few minutes to several hours, accompanied by tinnitus and decreased hearing in her left ear. She denies any identifiable triggers that worsen her symptoms. She has no significant medical history. Her ear and cranial nerve examinations are normal.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular schwannoma

      Correct Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours, accompanied by unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. This clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which should be confirmed by referral to an ENT specialist and formal audiometry. The cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it may be associated with raised endolymph pressure in the inner ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, labyrinthitis, and vestibular neuronitis are not likely diagnoses, as they present with different symptoms and characteristics.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on...

    Correct

    • A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on the development of coronary artery disease in elderly individuals. They are aware that, depending on the type of study they choose, recall bias may affect the results. In which of the following types of study is this bias most likely to affect their results?

      Your Answer: Case-control studies

      Explanation:

      Types of Studies and the Risk of Recall Bias

      Recall bias is a common issue in research studies that rely on self-reported information from participants. Here, we will discuss different types of studies and their risk of recall bias.

      Case-Control Studies: In this type of study, groups of people with an illness are compared to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, as participants are asked to self-report on their experiences, biases may creep in, leading to inaccurate reporting.

      Cohort Studies: Unlike case-control studies, cohort studies follow subjects through time, making them less susceptible to recall bias.

      Ecological Studies: These studies focus on populations rather than individuals, reducing the risk of recall bias as they do not rely on self-reported information.

      Randomized Controlled Trials: In this type of study, participants are randomly assigned to receive either the intervention being tested or an alternative treatment. As there is no reliance on retrospective self-reporting, the risk of recall bias is lower.

      Systematic Reviews: Systematic reviews summarize all available primary research on a topic. However, they may be confounded by the author’s own bias in selecting and interpreting evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?...

    Correct

    • Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and aphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alzheimer’s Disease: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by a range of cognitive deficits, including memory impairment, language disturbance, and difficulty with motor activities. In addition to these cognitive symptoms, individuals with Alzheimer’s disease may also experience personality changes and behavioral problems.

      While some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are common, others are less so. For example, extrapyramidal signs and myoclonus are uncommon, as are pyramidal signs and seizures, especially in the early stages of the illness.

      To diagnose Alzheimer’s disease, doctors typically use the DSM-IV criteria for dementia of the Alzheimer’s type. These criteria include the development of multiple cognitive defects, significant impairment in social or occupational functioning, and a gradual onset and continuing cognitive decline. Additionally, the cognitive deficits must not be due to any other central nervous system conditions, systemic conditions, or substance-induced conditions.

      By understanding the common features and diagnostic criteria of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals and their loved ones can better recognize the signs of this debilitating illness and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer: Calcitriol

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old presents to surgery with complaints of weakness in her right hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old presents to surgery with complaints of weakness in her right hand and slight difficulty speaking the previous evening. Today, all symptoms have resolved and neurological examination is normal. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). The patient inquires if it is safe for her to continue driving. What is the recommended duration for refraining from driving a motor vehicle after experiencing a classical TIA?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Cerebrovascular Events

      Following a cerebrovascular event, such as a stroke, patients are not allowed to drive for one month. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. However, if there are residual neurological deficits one month after the episode, such as visual field defects, cognitive defects, or impaired limb function, the DVLA must be notified. Minor limb weakness alone doesn’t require notification unless it requires restrictions to certain types of vehicles or vehicles with adapted controls. In cases of severe physical impairment, adaptations may be able to overcome the impairment. It is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
      Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms

      Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 3-year-old dairy farmer's son has been experiencing diarrhoea for 7 days. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old dairy farmer's son has been experiencing diarrhoea for 7 days. A stool sample is sent and it comes back positive for Cryptosporidium.
      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this child?

      Your Answer: His family should all be screened for carriage

      Correct Answer: He can expect the diarrhoea to last longer with possible relapses

      Explanation:

      Cryptosporidiosis is a type of infection caused by Cryptosporidium species, which are parasites that live inside cells and can affect both humans and animals. This illness is a significant cause of diarrhea worldwide, especially in young children and people with weakened immune systems. In the UK, there are around 5000-6000 cases reported each year. The infection can be spread through direct contact with infected livestock or people, or through contaminated food or water. Symptoms can last for up to a month, with over a third of patients experiencing a relapse. However, healthy individuals typically recover without treatment, although rehydration is important. People with cryptosporidiosis should avoid swimming pools for two weeks, but can return to nursery after 48 hours of symptom resolution. Routine hygiene measures are sufficient to prevent further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a gastroenterologist (within the two week wait pathway)

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection. She is currently taking Cerazette (desogestrel). What advice should be given regarding contraception?

      Your Answer: There is no need for extra protections

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions are not necessary when taking antibiotics with the progestogen-only pill.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what sporting activities were safe for her child as she heard his neck is not as stable as other children's.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate piece of advice to be given?

      Your Answer: There is no restriction on sporting activities

      Correct Answer: He can play most sports, but specialised sports such as gymnastics require screening

      Explanation:

      Cervical Spine Injury in Sports

      Playing sports doesn’t increase the risk of cervical spine injury any more than the general population. In fact, specialised sports like gymnastics have protocols to screen for craniovertebral instability. There is no evidence to support the use of a neck brace for sports-related cervical spine injuries.

      However, individuals with Down’s syndrome may be at a higher risk of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy. Warning signs include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, increasing fatigability on walking, or deterioration of manipulative skills. If someone with Down’s syndrome presents with these symptoms, they should immediately stop participating in sports and seek urgent assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.

      During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.

      All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.

      Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.

      While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.

      Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.

      In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 40 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Correct Answer: Macrognathia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      9.2
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  • Question 41 - A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      42.4
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  • Question 42 - What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma?

      Your Answer: Avoid high heels + metatarsal pads

      Explanation:

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      9.2
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  • Question 43 - You advise a 50-year-old man that he needs to have a colonoscopy because...

    Incorrect

    • You advise a 50-year-old man that he needs to have a colonoscopy because of persistent abdominal discomfort. He has a history of ulcerative colitis.

      What advice do you give regarding his mesalamine dosage on the day of the colonoscopy?

      Your Answer: Double the oral dose before the procedure

      Correct Answer: Double the oral dose after the procedure

      Explanation:

      Management of Addison’s Disease

      For minor surgeries like barium enema, endoscopy, and cataract surgery, the standard approach is to administer 50-100 mg of hydrocortisone orally or parenterally just before the procedure. There should be no change in dosage, but acute management doses should be used for major surgeries. After the surgery, patients should return to their normal daily medication.

      However, questions about the management of Addison’s disease are often poorly answered. It is essential to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to know when to double the dose of hydrocortisone, when to administer IM hydrocortisone, and how much to give. It is also important to note that some formulations are not suitable, and it is usually the hydrocortisone that is increased. Additionally, knowing what to do if a patient with Addison’s starts vomiting is crucial. These are all important learning points that fall under the less common but potentially catastrophic if missed in primary care category.

      In summary, managing Addison’s disease requires a thorough understanding of the sick day rules and the appropriate administration of hydrocortisone. Being prepared for potential complications is crucial for providing optimal care to patients with Addison’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      20.5
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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually last for 30-60 minutes and happen every few days. The patient experiences a sensation of the room spinning and often feels nauseous during these attacks. Additionally, there is a 'roaring' sensation in the left ear. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, but Weber's test indicates localization to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      The Weber’s test in sensorineural hearing loss indicates that the sound is perceived more strongly in the ear opposite to the affected ear.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.4
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  • Question 45 - A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:

      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 9.5
      2 15.1

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      21.8
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  • Question 46 - A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total cholesterol level of 6.3 mmol/l (desirable < 5.2 mmol/l), a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.8 μU/l (normal range 0.17–3.2 μU/l), a thyroxine (T4) level of 13 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). Further testing reveals a triiodothyronine (T3) level of 4.5 pmol/l (normal range 3.5–5.0 pmol/l) and negative thyroid peroxidase antibodies. The patient doesn't report any symptoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat thyroid function tests in three to six months

      Explanation:

      Management of Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a common condition in middle-aged and older women, characterized by normal serum T4 and T3 levels but raised TSH concentration without specific symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction. The condition may result from previous hyperthyroidism or nonspecific symptoms such as tiredness or weight gain. In cases where patients have detectable levels of microsomal thyroid peroxidase antibodies, they are more likely to develop overt hypothyroidism.

      Treatment with thyroxine is recommended for patients with a TSH > 10 μU/l and those with clinical features. The aim of therapy is to restore TSH concentration to within the reference range. However, a serum TSH concentration of less than 10 μU/l in patients who are antibody negative warrants observation rather than immediate treatment, as it may be a transient phenomenon.

      It is not clear whether subclinical hypothyroidism contributes to the development of ischaemic heart disease. Therefore, prescribing simvastatin is not recommended without further information on the patient’s QRISK. Similarly, referring for a thyroid ultrasound scan and fine needle biopsy is not necessary unless there is an unexplained thyroid lump.

      The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence lists the indications for referral in people with subclinical hypothyroidism, including cases of suspected subacute thyroiditis, people planning a pregnancy, those with cardiac disease, and amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism. Therefore, referring to an endocrinologist is not necessary in most cases of subclinical hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      32.5
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  • Question 47 - A 15-year-old boy with Down's Syndrome and his guardian visit their General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy with Down's Syndrome and his guardian visit their General Practitioner for a check-up as the boy has been struggling with his schoolwork. What are the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence's recommendations for annual health checks for individuals with a learning disability by General Practitioners?

      Your Answer: Current health interventions should be reviewed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Annual Physical Health Checks for People with Learning Disabilities

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that people with learning disabilities should receive an annual physical health check in all settings. This check should be carried out using a standardised template, such as the Welsh health check template, and should include a review of any known or emerging challenging behaviour and how it may be linked to any physical health problems.

      The physical health review should also include a review of current health interventions, including medication and related side effects, drug interactions, and adherence. An agreed and shared care plan for managing any physical health problems, including pain, should also be developed.

      It is important to note that the annual physical health check should be carried out together with a family member, carer, healthcare professional, or social care practitioner who knows the person. This is to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care and that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately.

      In conclusion, annual physical health checks are crucial for people with learning disabilities to ensure that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately. It is important that healthcare professionals follow the recommended guidelines and carry out these checks in all settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 49 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.

      This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.

      Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.

      Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:

      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l

      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      13.6
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  • Question 51 - A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted 10 minutes a fortnight earlier and fully resolved.

      Examination reveals that he is in atrial fibrillation.

      Assuming he remains in atrial fibrillation which of the following is the most appropriate management regime?

      Your Answer: No antithrombotic treatment indicated

      Explanation:

      Thromboprophylaxis for High Risk Stroke Patients

      This patient is at high risk for future stroke and requires anticoagulation with warfarin. To assess the risk of bleeding and stroke, it is important to calculate the HASBLED and CHADS-VASc scores. The CHADS-VASc score takes into account factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, stroke history, vascular disease, and sex. If the score is 1 or higher, oral anticoagulation should be considered. If the score is 0, no anticoagulation is needed. If the score is 1 but the only point is for female gender, it is treated as a score of 0. In this case, the patient’s CHADS-VASc score is 2, indicating a need for anticoagulation. The target range for INR is 2-3, with a target INR of 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 52 - A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Alkalinisation of the urine

      Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment

      Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.

      It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.

      In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.

      Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 53 - The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the...

    Correct

    • The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the latest childhood immunisation schedule in the UK. He expresses apprehension about the 4-in-1 vaccine and its potential to overwhelm his child. Can you provide information on the vaccines included in this shot?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenza type b and hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Starting from 2017, the hepatitis B vaccination has been incorporated into the standard immunisation schedule in the UK, which now includes the 6-in-1 vaccine. Previously, the 5-in-1 vaccine comprised diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b. The hepatitis B vaccine is now administered alongside these at 8, 12 and 16 weeks after birth.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 54 - Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for having their Group 1 driving license denied or taken away?

      Your Answer: A 19-year-old man who occasionally takes lorazepam along with Ecstasy when he is in a night club

      Correct Answer: A 40-year-old woman who is taking a supra-therapeutic dose of diazepam as part of a benzodiazepine withdrawal programme

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Driving: Guidelines for Licensing

      Benzodiazepines, particularly long-acting ones, are known to impair driving performance, especially when combined with alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) has set guidelines for licensing regarding the use of these drugs.

      For Group 1 vehicles, persistent misuse or dependence on benzodiazepines will result in license refusal or revocation until a minimum of one year free of use has been achieved. For Group 2 vehicles, this period is extended to three years. The DVLA may require independent medical assessment and urine screening, as well as a favorable report from a consultant or specialist upon reapplication.

      The non-prescribed use of benzodiazepines or the use of supra-therapeutic doses, whether in a substance withdrawal/maintenance program or not, is considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes. However, occasional misuse doesn’t constitute persistent misuse or dependence.

      Prescribed use of benzodiazepines at therapeutic doses, without evidence of impairment, is not considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes, although clinical dependence may exist. It is important to note that any patient taking benzodiazepines may become unfit to drive at some point, but the guidelines are clear regarding licensing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Port-wine stain

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. He is asymptomatic and has no notable medical history. His CD4 count is currently at 290 cells/µL. What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer: As soon as HIV is diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV.

      Delaying treatment until symptoms or AIDS-defining illnesses occur is not recommended, as it can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.

      The BNF recommends offering antiretroviral treatment to all HIV-positive patients, regardless of their CD4 count.

      A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL indicates progression to AIDS, and a count below 50 cells/µL may result in poor response to antiretroviral therapy.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.

      The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.

      Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.

      Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He has developed a significant deterioration in his breathlessness over the last few days. He also complains of headache and dizziness.

      On examination he has a soft stridor and you notice some dilated veins on his chest wall.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit as a medical emergency

      Correct Answer: Furosemide orally

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, with lung cancer and lymphoma being the most frequent culprits. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      Typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause dizziness and even syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

      Treatment for SVCO typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases. Although dexamethasone may be given as an acute treatment, it is not the best answer for this patient, who needs to be referred immediately for inpatient treatment and monitoring.

      In summary, SVCO is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and referral for specialist assessment. Treatment options include steroids, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and stent insertion, depending on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      21.7
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  • Question 59 - A 45-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, intermittent pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, intermittent pain in his right flank. Upon urine dipstick examination, you find blood and suspect ureteric colic. Hospitalization is not necessary at this time, so you prescribe oral naproxen and schedule a non-contrast CT scan. What type of medication could also be helpful in this situation?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic blocker

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers may be utilized to assist in the natural passage of the stone.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteral obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intracorporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27.9
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  • Question 60 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.6
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  • Question 61 - A 20-year-old homeless patient has widespread bullous impetigo around the mouth and nasolabial...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old homeless patient has widespread bullous impetigo around the mouth and nasolabial folds. No other parts of the body are affected and there is no fever or systemic upset.

      He is allergic to penicillin and has no access to a fridge.

      What would be the next most appropriate treatment to offer this man?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Correct Answer: Oral clarithromycin bd for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for impetigo

      According to NICE’s CKS guidance, impetigo can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics depending on the severity of the infection. For mild and localized cases, topical fusidic acid is recommended for five days. However, if impetigo is known to be caused by MRSA, topical mupirocin should be used instead.

      For more widespread or bullous impetigo, oral antibiotics are recommended. Flucloxacillin is the first-line treatment, taken four times a day for seven days. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin can be considered as an alternative, taken twice a day for seven days.

      It is important to avoid prescribing topical antibiotics inappropriately or when there is a documented allergy, as these are examples of prescribing errors cited in the RCGP’s WPBA prescribing assessment review documentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 62 - The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with...

    Incorrect

    • The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with the Child Protection Act. Which organization must the school register with?

      Your Answer: Independent NHS Data Monitoring Office

      Correct Answer: Information Commissioner's Office

      Explanation:

      Registration with the Information Commissioner’s Office is mandatory for all entities, such as a GP surgery, that handle personal information, in accordance with the Data Protection Act of 1998.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of proximal upper...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of proximal upper limb pain that has been bothering her for 6 months. She reports experiencing headaches on the right side and suddenly experiences visual blurring on the right side. Upon examination, her right optic disk is found to be swollen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Giant cell arteritis (GCA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Headache with Visual Disturbances

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA), carotid artery dissection (CAD), cluster headache, idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), and ophthalmoplegic migraine are all potential causes of headache with visual disturbances. GCA is a systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the aorta and its extracranial branches, presenting with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and fatigue. CAD, which often occurs in the internal carotid artery, can cause headaches and neck and facial pain on the same side as the dissection, followed by signs of stroke. Cluster headaches are characterised by severe, unilateral pain around the eyes, accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features. IIH, which typically affects obese young women, is characterised by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances, but no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is a rare condition characterised by transient migraine-like headaches accompanied by long-lasting oculomotor, abducens, or trochlear neuropathy with diplopia. Pupillary abnormalities and ptosis may occur if the oculomotor nerve is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.7
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  • Question 64 - A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of intermittent rectal bleeding. She says she doesn't usually look but has noticed blood within her stools on several occasions over the past few weeks. She is a non-smoker and is normally fit and well, with no significant family history or past medical history. A diagnosis of colonic carcinoma is suspected.
      Which of the following presenting symptoms would most support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alternating diarrhoea and constipation

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Possible Underlying Pathologies: A Case Study

      Abdominal pain, abdominal bloating, alternating diarrhea and constipation, macrocytic anemia, and mucous per rectum are all symptoms that can indicate different underlying pathologies. In the case of a patient under 50 years old presenting with rectal bleeding, abdominal pain may suggest a more serious underlying pathology, such as colorectal cancer. According to NICE guidance, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered in such cases. Abdominal bloating, on the other hand, is more likely to be a symptom of irritable bowel disease. Alternating diarrhea and constipation, as well as mucous per rectum, are indicators of functional bowel disorders, such as irritable bowel syndrome. Finally, macrocytic anemia, while not associated with colorectal cancer, may warrant further investigation if found. Understanding the different symptoms and their possible underlying pathologies is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27.9
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  • Question 65 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor of the hands. There are no other neurological abnormalities.
      Select the most appropriate initial treatment.

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Essential Tremor: A Common Movement Disorder

      Essential tremor is the most prevalent movement disorder, characterized by a postural tremor that can occur between the ages of 20 and 60. It is a slowly progressive condition that can last for years. The exact cause of essential tremor is unknown, but it can be inherited or occur sporadically. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4-11 Hz, depending on the affected body segment. Essential tremor most commonly affects the hands, but it can also affect the head, voice, tongue, and legs. In severe cases, the tremor may occur at rest. Interestingly, small amounts of alcohol can alleviate the tremor, which is not the case for Parkinson’s disease. The most commonly used drugs for essential tremor are propranolol and primidone, but other medications such as alprazolam, atenolol, gabapentin, and topiramate may also be effective. Understanding essential tremor is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.5
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  • Question 66 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She reports feeling inadequate in social situations and worries about her career. Additionally, she experiences insomnia, difficulty concentrating, tenseness, and irritability. There are no other medical concerns, substance abuse, hallucinations, delusions, or psychomotor retardation. She appears well-groomed, doesn't express frustration, and denies suicidal ideation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Social phobia

      Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

      Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety that is difficult to control, along with restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Unlike adjustment disorder, the anxiety doesn’t appear to be related to a specific stressor or exclusively to social situations, and there is no evidence of specific obsessions or compulsions. Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder are better accounted for than major depressive disorder. There is no mention of low mood or loss of enjoyment in this scenario.

      Adjustment disorder, also known as exogenous, reactive, or situational depression, occurs when an individual is unable to adjust to a particular stress or major life event. People with this disorder typically have symptoms similar to those of depressed individuals, such as general loss of interest, feelings of hopelessness, and crying. Anxiety is a common feature of adjustment disorder. Unlike major depression, the disorder usually resolves once the individual is able to adapt to the situation.

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.9
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  • Question 67 - What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?

      Your Answer: It promotes hospice care for patients

      Correct Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care

      Explanation:

      The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care

      The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: No intervention, watchful waiting

      Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies

      The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is the most hazardous in overdose?

      Your Answer: Clomipramine

      Correct Answer: Dosulepin

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to avoid Dosulepin as it can be dangerous in case of overdose.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.

      What is the most suitable medication for treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous dexamethasone for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      23.7
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  • Question 71 - A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
      Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conventional antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects

      When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.

      Conventional Antipsychotics:
      Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.

      Atypical Antipsychotics:
      Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Lithium:
      Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants:
      Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red...

    Correct

    • You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red right eye. She has been experiencing discomfort for the past two days and feels like there is something in her eye. She cannot recall anything entering her eye, and her vision seems to be affected. She has no history of facial herpes and is in good health otherwise.

      Upon examination, her visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye as she has removed her contact lenses this morning. The eye is watering and red, but the pupil reaction is normal. The anterior chamber appears normal, but there is a small superficial corneal injury visible upon staining the eye.

      Based on the most probable diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a minor injury to their cornea, it is important to refer them urgently to secondary care. This is because contact lens use increases the risk of Pseudomonas infection, which can cause serious damage to the eyes and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient be referred for immediate ophthalmology assessment.

      Corneal abrasions occur when there is damage to the outer layer of the cornea, often caused by physical trauma such as scratching or rubbing the eye. Symptoms include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of something in the eye, and reduced vision in the affected eye. Diagnosis is made through the use of fluorescein staining, which highlights the damaged area. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting...

    Incorrect

    • Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?

      Your Answer: FW8

      Correct Answer: FP92A

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.

      The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.

      Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?

      In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.

      Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.

      Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.

      For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination that have been present for about a month. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and is currently on prednisolone. You suspect that he may have developed diabetes mellitus due to his corticosteroid treatment. What is the best method to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glucose tolerance test

      Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose sample

      Explanation:

      If a HbA1c test is not suitable for diagnosing T2DM, then a fasting glucose sample should be taken instead.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash...

    Correct

    • Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash around her mouth that has been present for 2 weeks. She reports that she recently switched to a different brand of foundation make-up.

      Upon examination, you observe clustered reddish papules, vesicles, and pustules on an erythematous base around her mouth and cheeks. The lip margins are unaffected. Your diagnosis is perioral dermatitis.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe 6 week course of an oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Perioral dermatitis can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. However, before starting treatment, it is important to evaluate any underlying factors and advise the patient to avoid using cosmetics, cleansers, and moisturizers on the affected area.

      For milder cases, a topical antibiotic such as clindamycin, erythromycin, or metronidazole can be used. However, for more severe cases, a systemic antibiotic such as oxytetracycline, lymecycline, doxycycline, or erythromycin should be used for a period of 4-6 weeks.

      It is important to note that the use of topical steroids should be avoided as they can cause or exacerbate perioral dermatitis. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it can be associated with the use of topical steroids for minor skin problems.

      Referral to a dermatologist is not necessary at this stage, as perioral dermatitis can be effectively treated in primary care. However, if the condition doesn’t respond to treatment or alternative diagnoses are being considered, referral to a dermatologist may be appropriate.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 75-year-old woman has just been released from the hospital after suffering a...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman has just been released from the hospital after suffering a stroke. She is visiting from France and wants to return home on the next flight to be with her family. As a temporary patient, she seeks your advice on flying. After reviewing the guidelines of the Civil Aviation Authority (CAA), what would be the most suitable advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Patients should not fly for 10 days following a cerebrovascular accident. He should also contact his airline directly

      Explanation:

      According to the guidance provided by the Civil Aviation Authority (CAA), individuals with a history of cerebrovascular accident should refrain from air travel for a period of 10 days. However, if the patient’s condition is stable, they may be allowed to fly within 3 days of the event. It is important to note that patients should also consult their insurance and airline providers before making any travel arrangements. The CAA doesn’t provide a clear definition of what constitutes a stable condition, so it is advisable to seek advice from a healthcare professional before considering air travel within the 10-day period.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.

      On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder

      This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.

      Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.

      Understanding Ludwig’s Angina

      Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.

      Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      150.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: If access were granted, harmful information cannot be excluded

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your...

    Incorrect

    • Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your help. She reports dysuria and frequency. These symptoms are typical of previous UTIs which she typically gets once a year. There is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain and she feels systemically well. She reports that it is difficult to get an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work. She says she will see her GP but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for a 60-year-old nurse who reports dysuria and frequency, typical of previous UTIs, but is having difficulty getting an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work? She feels systemically well and there is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain, but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      Your Answer: Prescribe a three-day course of antibiotics but advise her to book an appointment with her regular practice

      Correct Answer: Advise her to book an appointment with her regular practice

      Explanation:

      Providing Medical Care to Close Personal Relationships

      The General Medical Council advises against providing medical care to individuals with whom you have a close personal relationship. This is because the lack of independent assessment may lead to feeling pressured by the person and not having access to necessary information for ongoing treatment.

      While it is important to consider the nurse’s concerns about worsening symptoms, it is necessary to explain the position and why prescribing cannot be justified. Even prescribing a three-day course and asking the nurse to see her usual practice is not clinically justifiable at this time.

      Referring the nurse to the NMC is an extreme option, as it is unlikely that she is acting with malice but rather was not aware of the potential seriousness of her request. It is important to prioritize patient safety and maintain professional boundaries in all medical situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest pain. The nurse immediately calls 999 and performs an ECG which reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient's blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96%. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + clopidogrel 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG doesn’t exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.

      For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left knee pain for the past 4 weeks without any history of injury. She feels more tired than usual but is not otherwise unwell. Upon examination, her BMI is normal, and her vital signs are unremarkable. The left knee appears normal, and there is a full range of motion. All other joints are also normal. What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) to a specialist

      Correct Answer: Direct access X ray (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.

      Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.

      For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.

      In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK score of 11%. They lead an active lifestyle and have no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing these findings?

      Your Answer: Commence simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Based on the QRISK score, it appears that dietary changes alone may not be enough to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease to a satisfactory level.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge. Further investigation confirms infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of C. trachomatis Infection in Pregnancy

      C. trachomatis infection is becoming more common in the UK and can lead to adverse fetal outcomes such as spontaneous miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth retardation. Therefore, treatment is advised ahead of test results if chlamydia is strongly suspected clinically. Current UK guidelines recommend three different options for pregnant patients: erythromycin, amoxicillin, and azithromycin. However, erythromycin is the most appropriate option as it is the recommended treatment by most guidelines. Doxycycline, co-trimoxazole, and metronidazole are not routinely used in the treatment of chlamydia during pregnancy. It is also important to note that pregnant patients should be tested for cure 5 weeks after completing treatment (or 6 weeks if azithromycin is used).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is concerned about her own risk and wonders if she needs 'genetic tests'. There is no other history of breast cancer in the family. When should she be referred to secondary care?

      Your Answer: Jewish ancestry

      Explanation:

      Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 60-year-old man comes to see you to discuss PSA testing. He plays...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to see you to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis with a few friends once a week and they have all been talking about the PSA test after one of his friends went to see his own GP with 'waterworks' problems.

      He has no lower urinary tract symptoms and denies any history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He has one brother who is 63 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer. He is currently well.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed.

      What advice would you give to this patient?

      Your Answer: He should be advised of the benefits and limitations of PSA testing and make an individual decision on whether to have the test

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity are significant, with two out of three men with a raised PSA not having prostate cancer and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA having prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, in men with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction, digital rectal examination (DRE) and PSA testing should be offered. Asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer should be informed of the pros and cons of the test and allowed to make their own decision. DRE should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities.

      If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history is an important factor when considering prostate cancer. If the patient has a first-degree relative with prostate cancer, this may influence their decision on whether to have a PSA blood test. The risk of prostate cancer is increased by 112-140% for men with an affected father and 187-230% for men with an affected brother. Risks are higher for men under the age of 65 and for men where the relative is diagnosed before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      41.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular Health (3/5) 60%
Children And Young People (2/5) 40%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/9) 22%
Neurology (7/7) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (3/5) 60%
Gastroenterology (4/8) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (7/10) 70%
Kidney And Urology (3/6) 50%
Respiratory Health (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/4) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (3/5) 60%
Genomic Medicine (1/2) 50%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (0/3) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (3/3) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/2) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (1/1) 100%
Passmed